The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law in India:
- The law operates to strip an elected legislator of their seat immediately upon any change in their formal political party alignment.
- A nominated member of a house is legally barred from joining any political party throughout the entire duration of their tenure.
- If an independent member joins a political party after their election, it results in automatic disqualification from the legislature.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Tenth Schedule provides specific nuances for different categories of legislators.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because exceptions exist under the law; a legislator does not lose their seat if their original political party merges with another, provided at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to the merger.
- Statement 2 is also incorrect because a nominated member is not permanently barred from joining a political party. The framework allows a nominated legislator a grace period of six months from the date they take their seat to join any political party without facing disqualification.
- Statement 3 is correct. An independent member faces immediate disqualification if they choose to join any political party after their election to the house.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Tenth Schedule provides specific nuances for different categories of legislators.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because exceptions exist under the law; a legislator does not lose their seat if their original political party merges with another, provided at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to the merger.
- Statement 2 is also incorrect because a nominated member is not permanently barred from joining a political party. The framework allows a nominated legislator a grace period of six months from the date they take their seat to join any political party without facing disqualification.
- Statement 3 is correct. An independent member faces immediate disqualification if they choose to join any political party after their election to the house.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the epidemiological features of Sickle Cell Disease:
- The disease manifests early in childhood, with clinical symptoms typically surfacing around five to six months of age.
- The drop in fetal hemoglobin levels during infancy triggers the initial appearance of sickling symptoms.
- The disease burden is evenly distributed across all geographical zones and demographic populations of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct because symptoms of SCD generally begin to appear when an infant reaches 5 to 6 months of age.
- Statement 2 is correct because during early infancy, high levels of fetal hemoglobin protect the child; as fetal hemoglobin naturally declines and is replaced by defective adult hemoglobin, cell sickling and symptoms begin.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the disease burden is not evenly distributed; it is heavily concentrated within specific tribal and marginalized communities in certain geographic belts of India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct because symptoms of SCD generally begin to appear when an infant reaches 5 to 6 months of age.
- Statement 2 is correct because during early infancy, high levels of fetal hemoglobin protect the child; as fetal hemoglobin naturally declines and is replaced by defective adult hemoglobin, cell sickling and symptoms begin.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the disease burden is not evenly distributed; it is heavily concentrated within specific tribal and marginalized communities in certain geographic belts of India.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Air Cushion Vehicles (ACVs) in maritime law enforcement:
- The amphibious capability of ACVs allows them to navigate over mudflats and shallow waters where traditional coast guard vessels run aground.
- The Indian Coast Guard utilizes these vehicles primarily to counter cross-border smuggling and illegal activities in marshy terrains.
- These vehicles rely on deep-draft marine propellers that require a minimum depth of water to maintain high-speed propulsion.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct because hovercraft ride on a cushion of air, giving them all-terrain maneuverability over sandbars, mudflats, and shallow waters.
- Statement 2 is correct because this unique capability makes them ideal for patrolling difficult marshy frontiers like the Sundarbans and the creeks of Kutch, which are hotspots for maritime smuggling.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because ACVs feature a zero-draft design and rely on large air propellers mounted on top of the craft rather than underwater props, allowing them to glide smoothly over land and dry banks.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct because hovercraft ride on a cushion of air, giving them all-terrain maneuverability over sandbars, mudflats, and shallow waters.
- Statement 2 is correct because this unique capability makes them ideal for patrolling difficult marshy frontiers like the Sundarbans and the creeks of Kutch, which are hotspots for maritime smuggling.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because ACVs feature a zero-draft design and rely on large air propellers mounted on top of the craft rather than underwater props, allowing them to glide smoothly over land and dry banks.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: Defection under the Tenth Schedule can be legally inferred by a Presiding Officer through the systemic conduct of a member, even in the absence of a formal, written resignation from their political party.
Statement-II: The Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary, Maharashtra (2023) judgment established that a legislative majority within the house is the sole criterion to determine which faction constitutes the real political party.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement-I is correct. In the Rajendra Singh Rana v. Swami Prasad Maurya (2007) case, the Supreme Court ruled that a member’s conduct outside the house can be a clear indicator of voluntarily giving up membership, making a formal resignation unnecessary for disqualification.
Statement-II is incorrect because the Subhash Desai (2023) judgment explicitly rejected the notion that a legislative majority is the sole factor. The Supreme Court held that the party’s organizational structure, constitution, and leadership must be assessed to determine the real political party, rather than relying merely on which faction holds more seats inside the legislature at a given moment.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement-I is correct. In the Rajendra Singh Rana v. Swami Prasad Maurya (2007) case, the Supreme Court ruled that a member’s conduct outside the house can be a clear indicator of voluntarily giving up membership, making a formal resignation unnecessary for disqualification.
Statement-II is incorrect because the Subhash Desai (2023) judgment explicitly rejected the notion that a legislative majority is the sole factor. The Supreme Court held that the party’s organizational structure, constitution, and leadership must be assessed to determine the real political party, rather than relying merely on which faction holds more seats inside the legislature at a given moment.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Katchatheevu Island:
- It is an inhabited island located in the Gulf of Mannar that has served as a permanent settlement for fishing communities from both India and Sri Lanka.
- The island houses the historic St. Antony’s Church, where Indian citizens can travel for an annual pilgrimage without a passport or visa.
- Under international law, any change to the settled status of the island can be executed unilaterally by the originating country through domestic legislation.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
- Statement I suggests that the island supports long-term human habitation.
- Statement II suggests that bilateral treaties have carved out specific travel easements for religious purposes.
- Statement III suggests that domestic legislation overrides international maritime boundary agreements.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- Katchatheevu is a small uninhabited islet located in the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka. It has no permanent residents, no settled fishing communities, and lacks natural sources of drinking water. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. Since the statement wrongly portrays the island as supporting permanent habitation, Inference 1 cannot be accepted.
- Statement 2 is correct. Katchatheevu is known for Antony’s Church, an important religious site visited by devotees from both India and Sri Lanka. Under the arrangements governing access to the island, Indian pilgrims are permitted to attend the annual church festival without the requirement of a passport or visa. This clearly indicates the existence of a special bilateral travel concession for religious purposes. Hence, Inference 2 is valid.
- Statement 3 is also incorrect. International maritime boundaries settled through bilateral agreements are governed by international law and cannot ordinarily be altered unilaterally by one country through domestic legislation alone. Any modification would require mutual agreement or recourse to appropriate international legal mechanisms. Therefore, Inference 3 is not valid.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Katchatheevu is a small uninhabited islet located in the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka. It has no permanent residents, no settled fishing communities, and lacks natural sources of drinking water. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. Since the statement wrongly portrays the island as supporting permanent habitation, Inference 1 cannot be accepted.
- Statement 2 is correct. Katchatheevu is known for Antony’s Church, an important religious site visited by devotees from both India and Sri Lanka. Under the arrangements governing access to the island, Indian pilgrims are permitted to attend the annual church festival without the requirement of a passport or visa. This clearly indicates the existence of a special bilateral travel concession for religious purposes. Hence, Inference 2 is valid.
- Statement 3 is also incorrect. International maritime boundaries settled through bilateral agreements are governed by international law and cannot ordinarily be altered unilaterally by one country through domestic legislation alone. Any modification would require mutual agreement or recourse to appropriate international legal mechanisms. Therefore, Inference 3 is not valid.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding India’s first commercial-scale Coal-to-Ammonium Nitrate Project:
- The strategic execution of the project is managed via a joint venture between Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) and Coal India Limited (CIL).
- The project utilizes entirely imported gasification machinery to bypass the technical challenges of domestic coal processing.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because the development is executed by Bharat Coal Gasification and Chemicals Limited (BCGCL), which is a corporate joint venture between public sector giants BHEL and CIL.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the project prides itself on using 100% indigenous technology. The specialized fluidised bed gasification system was engineered completely in-house by BHEL, customized to handle the unique high-ash variations found in domestic coal reserves.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because the development is executed by Bharat Coal Gasification and Chemicals Limited (BCGCL), which is a corporate joint venture between public sector giants BHEL and CIL.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the project prides itself on using 100% indigenous technology. The specialized fluidised bed gasification system was engineered completely in-house by BHEL, customized to handle the unique high-ash variations found in domestic coal reserves.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Kanchan Devi Committee:
- The committee is a Supreme Court-appointed expert panel constituted to review frameworks governing a specific ecological range.
- The primary geographic focus of this committee’s mandate is the protection and conservation of the Aravalli Range.
- The panel is explicitly tasked with recommending measures for forest demarcation and sustainable land-use management.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct because the Kanchan Devi Committee is an expert panel set up by the Supreme Court to reassess legal guidelines.
- Statement 2 is correct because its direct target is to review the court’s previous decisions regarding the protection and classification of the Aravalli Range.
- Statement 3 is correct because its official aim includes proposing concrete steps for environmental conservation, forest demarcation, and sustainable land-use management inside that fragile eco-system.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct because the Kanchan Devi Committee is an expert panel set up by the Supreme Court to reassess legal guidelines.
- Statement 2 is correct because its direct target is to review the court’s previous decisions regarding the protection and classification of the Aravalli Range.
- Statement 3 is correct because its official aim includes proposing concrete steps for environmental conservation, forest demarcation, and sustainable land-use management inside that fragile eco-system.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sickle Cell Disease (SCD):
- The disease alters the structural shape of hemoglobin due to a specific mutation in the gene responsible for synthesizing beta-globin.
- It follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, meaning a child will develop the active disease if even a single parent passes on the mutated gene.
- Hydroxyurea therapy is utilized in clinical management because it stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin, which reduces the sickling of red blood cells.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct because SCD is caused by a genetic mutation in the HBB gene which disrupts the blueprint for making beta-globin, turning flexible red blood cells into rigid crescent shapes.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the condition follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. A person will only develop the symptomatic disease if they inherit two mutated copies of the gene (one from each parent). If they inherit just one copy, they remain a healthy carrier.
- Statement 3 is correct because Hydroxyurea therapy works by elevating fetal hemoglobin levels, which directly prevents cells from clustering and causing painful vaso-occlusive crises.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct because SCD is caused by a genetic mutation in the HBB gene which disrupts the blueprint for making beta-globin, turning flexible red blood cells into rigid crescent shapes.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the condition follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. A person will only develop the symptomatic disease if they inherit two mutated copies of the gene (one from each parent). If they inherit just one copy, they remain a healthy carrier.
- Statement 3 is correct because Hydroxyurea therapy works by elevating fetal hemoglobin levels, which directly prevents cells from clustering and causing painful vaso-occlusive crises.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following acts or amendments completely removed the legal protection initially granted to a ‘split’ involving one-third of a political party’s legislative members under the Tenth Schedule?
Correct
Solution: D
- When the Anti-Defection Law was originally introduced via the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1985, Paragraph 3 protected a breakaway group if it constituted at least one-third of the party’s legislative strength (termed a “split”).
- However, this provision was frequently misused to engineering destabilizing splits. To fix this loophole, parliament enacted the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, which completely deleted Paragraph 3. Following this change, minor splits are no longer recognized as a valid defense against disqualification, leaving a full two-thirds merger as the only structural exemption.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- When the Anti-Defection Law was originally introduced via the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1985, Paragraph 3 protected a breakaway group if it constituted at least one-third of the party’s legislative strength (termed a “split”).
- However, this provision was frequently misused to engineering destabilizing splits. To fix this loophole, parliament enacted the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, which completely deleted Paragraph 3. Following this change, minor splits are no longer recognized as a valid defense against disqualification, leaving a full two-thirds merger as the only structural exemption.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the statutory powers of the Judges Inquiry Committee, consider the following statements:
- The committee is vested with the full powers of a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure.
- It has the authority to issue arrest warrants and sentence individuals to criminal imprisonment for non-compliance with its summons.
- It must enforce the principles of natural justice by providing the accused judge an opportunity to submit a written defense and cross-examine witnesses.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. To ensure thorough investigations into judicial misconduct, the Judges Inquiry Committee is legally granted the statutory powers of a Civil Court. This allows the panel to officially summon witnesses, demand the production of confidential state or judicial documents, and examine individuals under oath.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the committee holds the powers of a Civil Court for evidence gathering, it is fundamentally an investigative and fact-finding tribunal. It does not possess criminal jurisdiction, meaning it cannot issue arrest warrants or directly sentence individuals to criminal imprisonment for non-compliance. Issues of contempt or non-compliance must be referred through proper judicial or parliamentary channels.
- Statement 3 is correct. The framework requires the committee to strictly adhere to the principles of natural justice. This ensures that the accused judge receives a fair trial. The specific charges must be served formally, and the judge must be given a clear opportunity to submit a comprehensive written defense, review evidence, and cross-examine witnesses through legal counsel.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. To ensure thorough investigations into judicial misconduct, the Judges Inquiry Committee is legally granted the statutory powers of a Civil Court. This allows the panel to officially summon witnesses, demand the production of confidential state or judicial documents, and examine individuals under oath.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the committee holds the powers of a Civil Court for evidence gathering, it is fundamentally an investigative and fact-finding tribunal. It does not possess criminal jurisdiction, meaning it cannot issue arrest warrants or directly sentence individuals to criminal imprisonment for non-compliance. Issues of contempt or non-compliance must be referred through proper judicial or parliamentary channels.
- Statement 3 is correct. The framework requires the committee to strictly adhere to the principles of natural justice. This ensures that the accused judge receives a fair trial. The specific charges must be served formally, and the judge must be given a clear opportunity to submit a comprehensive written defense, review evidence, and cross-examine witnesses through legal counsel.
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