The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Statistical Commission (NSC):
Statement I: The National Statistical Commission (NSC) acts as an autonomous regulatory and advisory body designed to insulate core national data collection from external or political influence.
Statement II: The Chief Statistician of India, who serves as the Secretary to the Government of India within the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, functions as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Commission.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct because the National Statistical Commission (NSC) was explicitly established as an empowered, autonomous advisory body designed to serve as the nodal agency for core statistical activities. Its primary structural objective is to function as a centralized authority that insulates official data collection and processing from external influences, while setting robust nationwide benchmarks.
Statement II is incorrect because the executive leadership of the NSC features a part-time Chairperson, not the Chief Statistician of India (CSI). The CSI, who heads the National Statistical Office and acts as the Secretary to the Government of India within the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), actually serves as the formal Secretary to the Commission, rather than its Chairperson.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct because the National Statistical Commission (NSC) was explicitly established as an empowered, autonomous advisory body designed to serve as the nodal agency for core statistical activities. Its primary structural objective is to function as a centralized authority that insulates official data collection and processing from external influences, while setting robust nationwide benchmarks.
Statement II is incorrect because the executive leadership of the NSC features a part-time Chairperson, not the Chief Statistician of India (CSI). The CSI, who heads the National Statistical Office and acts as the Secretary to the Government of India within the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), actually serves as the formal Secretary to the Commission, rather than its Chairperson.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- A standard El Niño is defined broadly by sea-surface temperature anomalies, whereas a super El Niño requires a massive temperature departure exceeding 2°C in a specific reference patch of the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
- The primary meteorological trigger for a Super El Niño is the sudden, intense strengthening of the easterly trade winds, which forces warm water to compress against the Asian coastline.
Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?
- Long-term climate change acts as an incubator by increasing baseline ocean heat, making modern events cross extreme thresholds.
- The weakening or reversal of equatorial trade winds causes massive pools of warm surface water to accumulate and drift eastward toward South America.
- The phenomenon generates a higher total volume of tropical cyclones uniformly distributed across all global ocean basins.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
- A Super El Niño is generally identified when sea-surface temperature anomalies in the Niño 3.4 region of the equatorial Pacific exceed about +2°C, making Statement 1 correct. Information 1 supports this by explaining how rising background ocean temperatures associated with long-term climate change can make it easier for El Niño events to attain extreme intensity.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because Super El Niño events are associated with the weakening or even reversal of the easterly trade winds, not their strengthening. When these winds weaken, warm water that is normally piled up in the western Pacific moves eastward toward the central and eastern Pacific, enhancing ocean warming. Therefore, Information 2 directly addresses the actual mechanism behind strong El Niño episodes and is relevant to assessing the statement.
- Information 3 does not support the statements. Super El Niño influences cyclone activity differently across ocean basins; it does not produce a uniformly higher number of tropical cyclones worldwide. Some regions experience increased activity while others experience suppression due to changes in atmospheric circulation patterns.
- Hence, 1 and 2 only are the relevant supporting pieces of information.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- A Super El Niño is generally identified when sea-surface temperature anomalies in the Niño 3.4 region of the equatorial Pacific exceed about +2°C, making Statement 1 correct. Information 1 supports this by explaining how rising background ocean temperatures associated with long-term climate change can make it easier for El Niño events to attain extreme intensity.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because Super El Niño events are associated with the weakening or even reversal of the easterly trade winds, not their strengthening. When these winds weaken, warm water that is normally piled up in the western Pacific moves eastward toward the central and eastern Pacific, enhancing ocean warming. Therefore, Information 2 directly addresses the actual mechanism behind strong El Niño episodes and is relevant to assessing the statement.
- Information 3 does not support the statements. Super El Niño influences cyclone activity differently across ocean basins; it does not produce a uniformly higher number of tropical cyclones worldwide. Some regions experience increased activity while others experience suppression due to changes in atmospheric circulation patterns.
- Hence, 1 and 2 only are the relevant supporting pieces of information.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS):
- It is a bilateral logistics support agreement operationalized between the Republic of India and the Russian Federation.
- It serves as an offensive military alliance that mandates joint combat operations against third-party maritime nations.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because RELOS is strictly a bilateral pact signed between India and Russia to streamline logistical cooperation, entering into force in January 2026.
Statement 2 is incorrect because RELOS is a foundational, non-offensive military cooperation agreement designed purely for administrative and technical purposes. It is engineered to simplify bureaucracy and reduce turnaround times for refueling, maintenance, and supplies during deployments. It does not establish a mutual defense pact or an offensive military alliance, nor does it mandate joint combat operations against any other nation.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because RELOS is strictly a bilateral pact signed between India and Russia to streamline logistical cooperation, entering into force in January 2026.
Statement 2 is incorrect because RELOS is a foundational, non-offensive military cooperation agreement designed purely for administrative and technical purposes. It is engineered to simplify bureaucracy and reduce turnaround times for refueling, maintenance, and supplies during deployments. It does not establish a mutual defense pact or an offensive military alliance, nor does it mandate joint combat operations against any other nation.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the transboundary journey of the Ganges-Padma system:
- The river channel officially takes the name Padma after crossing the international boundary from India into Bangladesh.
- The Padma River flows through low-lying deltaic plains before ultimately emptying into the Arabian Sea.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because after originating at Devprayag and flowing through northern and eastern India as the Ganga, the river enters Bangladesh near Shibganj and officially assumes the name Padma.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Padma flows through low-lying deltaic plains, its convergence journey takes it through a confluence with the Jamuna and the Meghna before it discharges its massive volume into the Bay of Bengal, which lies on the eastern side of the subcontinent, not the Arabian Sea on the western side.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because after originating at Devprayag and flowing through northern and eastern India as the Ganga, the river enters Bangladesh near Shibganj and officially assumes the name Padma.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Padma flows through low-lying deltaic plains, its convergence journey takes it through a confluence with the Jamuna and the Meghna before it discharges its massive volume into the Bay of Bengal, which lies on the eastern side of the subcontinent, not the Arabian Sea on the western side.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) Hijacking:
- It is a routing event that occurs when a network operator falsely advertises IP address space that it does not own, confusing the internet’s global directory.
- The core infrastructure of the internet prevents this event entirely because networks require universal cryptographic validation before accepting any BGP routing paths.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. BGP Hijacking occurs when an Autonomous System (AS) announces IP prefixes that it does not legitimately control. Since BGP functions as the internet’s routing protocol, other networks may mistakenly believe the false route is valid and redirect traffic through the rogue network. This can lead to traffic interception, service disruption, censorship, or accidental routing errors.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Traditional BGP was designed largely on trust between network operators and does not universally require cryptographic verification of route announcements. As a result, false route advertisements can propagate across the internet. Although security mechanisms such as the Resource Public Key Infrastructure (RPKI) and Route Origin Validation have been developed to reduce such incidents, their adoption is not universal, and BGP hijacking remains possible.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. BGP Hijacking occurs when an Autonomous System (AS) announces IP prefixes that it does not legitimately control. Since BGP functions as the internet’s routing protocol, other networks may mistakenly believe the false route is valid and redirect traffic through the rogue network. This can lead to traffic interception, service disruption, censorship, or accidental routing errors.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Traditional BGP was designed largely on trust between network operators and does not universally require cryptographic verification of route announcements. As a result, false route advertisements can propagate across the internet. Although security mechanisms such as the Resource Public Key Infrastructure (RPKI) and Route Origin Validation have been developed to reduce such incidents, their adoption is not universal, and BGP hijacking remains possible.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the structural limits of the ordinance-making power of the Executive in India:
- An ordinance cannot be deployed under any circumstances to introduce a constitutional amendment.
- The President can issue an ordinance even when one of the two houses of Parliament is in active session, provided the other house has been prorogued.
- An ordinance can be given retrospective effect, allowing it to modify or repeal an existing Act of Parliament from a backdate.
- If Parliament takes no formal action upon reassembling, an ordinance automatically expires exactly six months from the date of its reassembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The ordinance power balances speed with constitutional limitations.
- Statement 1 is correct because amending the Constitution requires the rigorous procedure under Article 368, which demands specific majorities in both Houses of Parliament; this process cannot be bypassed via executive lawmaking.
- Statement 2 is correct because making a law requires both houses to pass a bill; if either house is prorogued, the legislative machinery cannot function, which allows the President to issue an ordinance if immediate action is needed.
- Statement 3 is correct because an ordinance shares the same legal capabilities as an Act of Parliament, meaning it can apply retrospectively, amend existing legislation, or repeal prior ordinances.
Statement 4 is incorrect because an ordinance automatically lapses six weeks from the date of Parliament’s reassembly, not six months, if it is not approved or rejected by the houses before then.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The ordinance power balances speed with constitutional limitations.
- Statement 1 is correct because amending the Constitution requires the rigorous procedure under Article 368, which demands specific majorities in both Houses of Parliament; this process cannot be bypassed via executive lawmaking.
- Statement 2 is correct because making a law requires both houses to pass a bill; if either house is prorogued, the legislative machinery cannot function, which allows the President to issue an ordinance if immediate action is needed.
- Statement 3 is correct because an ordinance shares the same legal capabilities as an Act of Parliament, meaning it can apply retrospectively, amend existing legislation, or repeal prior ordinances.
Statement 4 is incorrect because an ordinance automatically lapses six weeks from the date of Parliament’s reassembly, not six months, if it is not approved or rejected by the houses before then.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the outputs of bioenergy conversion systems:
- The liquid digestate obtained from anaerobic digestion serves as a highly concentrated, nutrient-rich organic fertilizer.
- Biochar is an undesirable, hazardous waste byproduct of gasification that must be safely disposed of to prevent soil acidification.
- Scrubbing raw biogas increases its commercial utility by lowering its methane composition to below fifty percent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. The anaerobic digestion of wet organic waste streams yields two distinct outputs: biogas and a liquid digestate. This digestate is highly stable and rich in essential crop nutrients, making it an excellent organic fertilizer for restoring agricultural soil structures.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Biochar is not an undesirable or hazardous waste byproduct. It is a carbon-dense material produced during the multi-stage thermochemical breakdown of dry biomass. Rather than being discarded, it is used to enhance soil moisture retention, restore fertility, and act as a tool for carbon sequestration by locking away emissions for long periods.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the process of scrubbing raw biogas is designed to remove carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, and other trace impurities. This purification step increases the methane concentration significantly, upgrading it into Compressed Biogas (CBG) with a purity profile of 90% or higher. This enhances its energy density and commercial value as a transport or industrial fuel.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. The anaerobic digestion of wet organic waste streams yields two distinct outputs: biogas and a liquid digestate. This digestate is highly stable and rich in essential crop nutrients, making it an excellent organic fertilizer for restoring agricultural soil structures.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Biochar is not an undesirable or hazardous waste byproduct. It is a carbon-dense material produced during the multi-stage thermochemical breakdown of dry biomass. Rather than being discarded, it is used to enhance soil moisture retention, restore fertility, and act as a tool for carbon sequestration by locking away emissions for long periods.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the process of scrubbing raw biogas is designed to remove carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, and other trace impurities. This purification step increases the methane concentration significantly, upgrading it into Compressed Biogas (CBG) with a purity profile of 90% or higher. This enhances its energy density and commercial value as a transport or industrial fuel.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following constitutional provisions serve as the direct anchors for the functioning of the parliamentary privilege system and state legislative privileges in India?
Correct
Solution: B
- The system of legislative privileges in India is designed to protect the institutional autonomy of elected bodies.
- Option (b) is correct because Article 105 outlines the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their committees, and their members. Similarly, Article 194 provides identical constitutional protections for State Legislatures and their respective committees.
- Option (a) is incorrect because Articles 75 and 164 relate to executive governance, specifically the appointment, collective responsibility, and tenure conditions of the Union Council of Ministers and State Ministers.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Articles 124 and 217 form the constitutional framework for the establishment, composition, and appointment processes of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
- Option (d) is incorrect because Articles 32 and 226 deal with the writ jurisdictions of the Supreme Court and High Courts, which safeguard fundamental rights.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The system of legislative privileges in India is designed to protect the institutional autonomy of elected bodies.
- Option (b) is correct because Article 105 outlines the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their committees, and their members. Similarly, Article 194 provides identical constitutional protections for State Legislatures and their respective committees.
- Option (a) is incorrect because Articles 75 and 164 relate to executive governance, specifically the appointment, collective responsibility, and tenure conditions of the Union Council of Ministers and State Ministers.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Articles 124 and 217 form the constitutional framework for the establishment, composition, and appointment processes of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
- Option (d) is incorrect because Articles 32 and 226 deal with the writ jurisdictions of the Supreme Court and High Courts, which safeguard fundamental rights.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsUnder the statutory provisions governing Schedule H1 drugs in India, which of the following compliance measures must be executed by a registered pharmacist?
- Maintaining a separate sales register containing detailed patient identities and prescribing doctor credentials.
- Retaining all Schedule H1 transaction records and registers for an audit-ready period of not less than three years.
- Dispensing the medication only if the primary packaging displays a distinct red-bordered warning box alongside a red Rx symbol.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
- All the compliance measures listed are legally mandated under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, for Schedule H1 classifications. Pharmacists are strictly required to maintain a dedicated sales register that logs the patient’s identity, the contact information of the Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP), the exact drug name, and the total quantity dispensed.
Furthermore, these regulatory logs must be preserved for at least three years to remain available for formal audits by state drug inspectors. The manufacturing rules also mandate that all Schedule H1 packagings feature a prominent red-bordered warning box and a red Rx symbol to flag their restricted nature and prevent unauthorized over-the-counter dispensing.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- All the compliance measures listed are legally mandated under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, for Schedule H1 classifications. Pharmacists are strictly required to maintain a dedicated sales register that logs the patient’s identity, the contact information of the Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP), the exact drug name, and the total quantity dispensed.
Furthermore, these regulatory logs must be preserved for at least three years to remain available for formal audits by state drug inspectors. The manufacturing rules also mandate that all Schedule H1 packagings feature a prominent red-bordered warning box and a red Rx symbol to flag their restricted nature and prevent unauthorized over-the-counter dispensing.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following economic consequences:
- Reduction in the overall net profit margins of corporate entities.
- Compression of the fiscal deficit due to lowered domestic debt-servicing burdens.
- Upward interest rate revisions by commercial banks on retail and home loans.
- Potential optimization or reduction in capital and public welfare allocations by the state.
Which of the developments given above are typical consequences of a sharp, sustained rise in sovereign bond yields?
Correct
Solution: B
- A sustained spike in sovereign bond yields has wide-ranging impacts on an economy. Because government securities set the risk-free floor rate, rising yields push up the broader cost of capital, leading commercial banks to raise interest rates on commercial, home, and retail loans. This increases borrowing costs for businesses, which can delay capital projects and compress corporate profitability (Points 1 and 3).
- For the state, higher yields increase interest payment obligations on public debt, which increases the fiscal burden rather than compressing it (making Point 2 incorrect).
- This heightened debt-servicing requirement can force governments to rationalize public spending or adjust welfare and infrastructure budgets (Point 4).
Incorrect
Solution: B
- A sustained spike in sovereign bond yields has wide-ranging impacts on an economy. Because government securities set the risk-free floor rate, rising yields push up the broader cost of capital, leading commercial banks to raise interest rates on commercial, home, and retail loans. This increases borrowing costs for businesses, which can delay capital projects and compress corporate profitability (Points 1 and 3).
- For the state, higher yields increase interest payment obligations on public debt, which increases the fiscal burden rather than compressing it (making Point 2 incorrect).
- This heightened debt-servicing requirement can force governments to rationalize public spending or adjust welfare and infrastructure budgets (Point 4).
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