The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the archaeological and artistic attributes of the prehistoric bronze statuette popularly known as the ‘Dancing Girl’ of Mohenjo-daro:
- The figure is cast with an even distribution of weight across both limbs, representing a rigid, symmetrical posture common in early Bronze Age metallurgy.
- The sculpture displays an asymmetrical arrangement of ornaments, featuring an elongated left arm almost completely covered with bangles.
- Discovered by John Marshall during the 1920s excavations, the original artifact is permanently preserved within the territorial boundaries of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the figurine stands in a fluid, realistic posture known in art history as the contrapposto stance, where the feet are apart and the body weight is distributed unevenly, resting primarily on her right leg with the right hip thrust out. It is far from a rigid or symmetrical posture.
- Statement 2 is correct. The statuette is highly celebrated for its distinctive asymmetrical ornamentation: her left arm is heavily adorned, almost completely covered with 24 bangles, whereas her right arm bears only 4 bangles and a single bracelet.
- Statement 3 is correct. British archaeologist John Marshall unearthed this masterpiece in 1926 during excavations at Mohenjo-daro (which is geographically located in present-day Sindh, Pakistan). Despite the site being in Pakistan, the original 4-inch bronze artifact remained with India following partition and is permanently housed in the Pre-History and Archaeology collection at the National Museum in New Delhi.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the figurine stands in a fluid, realistic posture known in art history as the contrapposto stance, where the feet are apart and the body weight is distributed unevenly, resting primarily on her right leg with the right hip thrust out. It is far from a rigid or symmetrical posture.
- Statement 2 is correct. The statuette is highly celebrated for its distinctive asymmetrical ornamentation: her left arm is heavily adorned, almost completely covered with 24 bangles, whereas her right arm bears only 4 bangles and a single bracelet.
- Statement 3 is correct. British archaeologist John Marshall unearthed this masterpiece in 1926 during excavations at Mohenjo-daro (which is geographically located in present-day Sindh, Pakistan). Despite the site being in Pakistan, the original 4-inch bronze artifact remained with India following partition and is permanently housed in the Pre-History and Archaeology collection at the National Museum in New Delhi.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the architectural and historical evolution of the Shree Jagannath Temple at Puri:
- The modern structural complex visible today was originally commissioned and constructed during the early Satya Yuga by the rulers of the Chola Dynasty.
- Following the British occupation of Odisha in the early 19th century, the East India Company immediately abolished all forms of pilgrim taxation to respect local religious sentiments.
- Post-Independence legislation completely dissolved the traditional administrative role of the Gajapati Maharaja, vesting all management powers in a purely secular bureaucratic cadre.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Shree Jagannath Temple at Puri is associated with ancient religious traditions that trace the worship of Lord Jagannath to mythological times. However, the present monumental temple structure was not built in Satya Yuga, nor was it commissioned by the Chola Dynasty. The existing temple is generally attributed to the rulers of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, particularly Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva in the 12th century CE, with subsequent additions by later rulers.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. After the British annexation of Odisha in 1803, the East India Company did not immediately abolish pilgrim taxes. In fact, the Company initially administered the temple and continued collecting pilgrim taxes for revenue purposes. These taxes were abolished only later, following criticism and changes in colonial policy regarding involvement in religious affairs.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Post-Independence, temple administration was reorganized under the Shree Jagannath Temple Managing Committee through state legislation. However, the Gajapati Maharaja of Puri continues to hold an important traditional and ceremonial position and serves as the chairman of the temple’s managing committee. Therefore, his administrative role was not completely dissolved nor transferred entirely to a secular bureaucratic cadre.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Shree Jagannath Temple at Puri is associated with ancient religious traditions that trace the worship of Lord Jagannath to mythological times. However, the present monumental temple structure was not built in Satya Yuga, nor was it commissioned by the Chola Dynasty. The existing temple is generally attributed to the rulers of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, particularly Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva in the 12th century CE, with subsequent additions by later rulers.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. After the British annexation of Odisha in 1803, the East India Company did not immediately abolish pilgrim taxes. In fact, the Company initially administered the temple and continued collecting pilgrim taxes for revenue purposes. These taxes were abolished only later, following criticism and changes in colonial policy regarding involvement in religious affairs.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Post-Independence, temple administration was reorganized under the Shree Jagannath Temple Managing Committee through state legislation. However, the Gajapati Maharaja of Puri continues to hold an important traditional and ceremonial position and serves as the chairman of the temple’s managing committee. Therefore, his administrative role was not completely dissolved nor transferred entirely to a secular bureaucratic cadre.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of highest state honors conferred on the Prime Minister of India in recent times:
Highest State Honor Conferring Nation 1. The Order of the White Double Cross, First Class Slovak Republic 2. Dominica Award of Honour Barbados 3. The Order of Excellence Guyana 4. Honorary Freedom of Barbados Dominica How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Order of the White Double Cross, First Class, is the highest state decoration of the Slovak Republic, which was formally conferred upon the Prime Minister of India during diplomatic engagements.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Dominica Award of Honour is the highest state award of Dominica, not Barbados.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Order of Excellence is the premier national state honor of the Cooperative Republic of Guyana.
- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The honor named Honorary Freedom of Barbados is conferred by Barbados, not Dominica.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Order of the White Double Cross, First Class, is the highest state decoration of the Slovak Republic, which was formally conferred upon the Prime Minister of India during diplomatic engagements.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Dominica Award of Honour is the highest state award of Dominica, not Barbados.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Order of Excellence is the premier national state honor of the Cooperative Republic of Guyana.
- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The honor named Honorary Freedom of Barbados is conferred by Barbados, not Dominica.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the institutional structure, evolution, and mandate of the G7 (Group of Seven) forum:
- The group expanded its core membership into the G8 in the late 1990s by formally integrating the Russian Federation, a structural format maintained uninterrupted to this day.
- The European Union participates within the G7 ministerial dialogues as a fully integrated, non-enumerated member.
- The joint ministerial declarations and communiqués issued at the conclusion of G7 summits carry binding legal jurisdiction over all non-member developing states.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect. While the group did expand into the G8 in 1998 by formally including Russia, this format was not maintained uninterrupted. In 2014, the G7 leaders voted to indefinitely suspend Russia’s participation following its violation of Ukraine’s sovereignty and territorial integrity, reverting permanently back to the G7 format.
- Statement 2 is correct. The European Union is a fully integrated participant in all political sessions of the forum, entering the framework progressively since the late 1970s, though it remains a “non-enumerated” member (not counted within the core seven countries).
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The joint declarations and communiqués issued by the G7 are politically binding on its own participating member states, but they carry absolutely no legal jurisdiction or binding authority over non-member developing states or the wider international community.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect. While the group did expand into the G8 in 1998 by formally including Russia, this format was not maintained uninterrupted. In 2014, the G7 leaders voted to indefinitely suspend Russia’s participation following its violation of Ukraine’s sovereignty and territorial integrity, reverting permanently back to the G7 format.
- Statement 2 is correct. The European Union is a fully integrated participant in all political sessions of the forum, entering the framework progressively since the late 1970s, though it remains a “non-enumerated” member (not counted within the core seven countries).
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The joint declarations and communiqués issued by the G7 are politically binding on its own participating member states, but they carry absolutely no legal jurisdiction or binding authority over non-member developing states or the wider international community.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Great Indian Bustard serves as a vital flagship indicator species for the ecological health of dry grassland and scrub forest biomes in the Indian subcontinent.
Statement-II: Flagship indicator species are highly sensitive to environmental alterations, meaning their population fluctuations directly reflect the structural integrity and conservation health of their specific ecosystem.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement-I is correct. The Great Indian Bustard is biologically classified as a flagship indicator species for grassland ecosystems. Its presence, breeding success, or decline provides conservationists with immediate insights into the health of wide, open semi-arid environments.
- Statement-II is also correct and provides conceptual explanation for Statement-I. An indicator species is chosen precisely because its biological requirements match the ecosystem perfectly; hence, any degradation in the grassland (such as fragmentation, agricultural over-intensification, or power line installation) is immediately visible through the decline of this bird.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement-I is correct. The Great Indian Bustard is biologically classified as a flagship indicator species for grassland ecosystems. Its presence, breeding success, or decline provides conservationists with immediate insights into the health of wide, open semi-arid environments.
- Statement-II is also correct and provides conceptual explanation for Statement-I. An indicator species is chosen precisely because its biological requirements match the ecosystem perfectly; hence, any degradation in the grassland (such as fragmentation, agricultural over-intensification, or power line installation) is immediately visible through the decline of this bird.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsIn the context of virology and vaccine engineering, the term “viral interference” is best described as:
Correct
Solution: C
- In vaccine formulations that mix multiple live viruses (like tetravalent dengue vaccines), viral interference is a major conceptual challenge where one specific component strain replicates much more robustly than the other strains within the host’s body. This dominant replication fills the cellular pathways and suppresses the replication and growth of the remaining weaker strains.
- As a direct consequence, the human body fails to develop a balanced, symmetrical immune response against all targeted variations simultaneously. Instead, it creates high immunity against the dominant strain and weak, sub-neutralizing antibody levels against the suppressed strains, which can later trigger adverse health complications like Antibody-Dependent Enhancement (ADE).
Incorrect
Solution: C
- In vaccine formulations that mix multiple live viruses (like tetravalent dengue vaccines), viral interference is a major conceptual challenge where one specific component strain replicates much more robustly than the other strains within the host’s body. This dominant replication fills the cellular pathways and suppresses the replication and growth of the remaining weaker strains.
- As a direct consequence, the human body fails to develop a balanced, symmetrical immune response against all targeted variations simultaneously. Instead, it creates high immunity against the dominant strain and weak, sub-neutralizing antibody levels against the suppressed strains, which can later trigger adverse health complications like Antibody-Dependent Enhancement (ADE).
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsThe “Velvet Divorce” is a historical term used in international relations to describe:
Correct
Solution: C
- The term “Velvet Divorce” refers to the historic, entirely peaceful separation of Czechoslovakia on January 1, 1993, which resulted in the creation of two independent sovereign nations: the Czech Republic and the Slovak Republic. This landmark event paved the way for the formal institution of Slovakia’s highest state honors, such as The Order of the White Double Cross in March 1994, to recognize foreign citizens who enhance Slovakia’s international standing.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The term “Velvet Divorce” refers to the historic, entirely peaceful separation of Czechoslovakia on January 1, 1993, which resulted in the creation of two independent sovereign nations: the Czech Republic and the Slovak Republic. This landmark event paved the way for the formal institution of Slovakia’s highest state honors, such as The Order of the White Double Cross in March 1994, to recognize foreign citizens who enhance Slovakia’s international standing.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the digital architecture of the WT-MARUT portal:
- The portal was launched under the joint administration of the Ministry of Culture and the Archaeological Survey of India.
- The primary objective of the portal is to track the physical repatriation of prehistoric bronze artifacts from European museums.
- It acts as an online public auction site for individual retail consumers to purchase small-scale domestic wind turbine kits.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect because WT-MARUT was officially launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) during the Global Wind Day Conference, not by cultural or archaeological bodies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the portal’s objective has nothing to do with antiquities or artifacts; it is India’s first centralized digital platform explicitly designed to manage, map, and optimize the domestic wind turbine manufacturing supply chain ecosystem.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because WT-MARUT is a business-to-business (B2B) platform linking industrial turbine manufacturers, independent power producers, component designers, and policy regulators, not a retail auction site for individual consumers.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect because WT-MARUT was officially launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) during the Global Wind Day Conference, not by cultural or archaeological bodies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the portal’s objective has nothing to do with antiquities or artifacts; it is India’s first centralized digital platform explicitly designed to manage, map, and optimize the domestic wind turbine manufacturing supply chain ecosystem.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because WT-MARUT is a business-to-business (B2B) platform linking industrial turbine manufacturers, independent power producers, component designers, and policy regulators, not a retail auction site for individual consumers.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the SEHAT Mission and Farmer Health:
- The mission includes awareness programs to protect farmers from risks associated with pesticide exposure.
- It promotes “Integrated Farming Systems” where rural families combine crop cultivation with animal husbandry and beekeeping.
- The initiative aims to align agricultural policy with national nutrition strategies using real-time dashboards.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The SEHAT Mission is comprehensive in its scope, addressing health at multiple levels.
- Statement 1 is correct as it specifically includes scientific interventions and awareness campaigns to safeguard farmers from the hazardous effects of pesticides and chemicals, reflecting the mission’s concern for the producers’ health.
- Statement 2 is correct regarding Integrated Farming Systems. By encouraging the combination of crops with animal husbandry, fisheries, and beekeeping, the mission ensures that rural families have access to a diverse and balanced diet, thereby improving household nutritional security.
- Statement 3 is correct because the mission seeks to institutionalize science-based policy support. The creation of real-time dashboards and research databases allows policymakers to align agricultural production with actual national nutrition requirements. This ensures that the country grows what its people need to eat to stay healthy. By focusing on micronutrient deficiencies and the “farm-to-plate” chain, the mission addresses the root causes of health issues rather than just treating symptoms.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The SEHAT Mission is comprehensive in its scope, addressing health at multiple levels.
- Statement 1 is correct as it specifically includes scientific interventions and awareness campaigns to safeguard farmers from the hazardous effects of pesticides and chemicals, reflecting the mission’s concern for the producers’ health.
- Statement 2 is correct regarding Integrated Farming Systems. By encouraging the combination of crops with animal husbandry, fisheries, and beekeeping, the mission ensures that rural families have access to a diverse and balanced diet, thereby improving household nutritional security.
- Statement 3 is correct because the mission seeks to institutionalize science-based policy support. The creation of real-time dashboards and research databases allows policymakers to align agricultural production with actual national nutrition requirements. This ensures that the country grows what its people need to eat to stay healthy. By focusing on micronutrient deficiencies and the “farm-to-plate” chain, the mission addresses the root causes of health issues rather than just treating symptoms.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: The maximum possible lifespan of an ordinance promulgated in India without receiving parliamentary approval is capped at six months and six weeks.
Statement II: The Constitution of India explicitly mandates that the maximum gap allowed between two consecutive sessions of Parliament cannot exceed six months.
Statement III: An ordinance automatically ceases to operate exactly six weeks from the specific date on which Parliament reassembles.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- The structural lifespan of an ordinance is a direct mathematical outcome of clear constitutional provisions.
- Statement I is correct because an ordinance cannot last indefinitely and faces a strict constitutional expiration window.
- Statement II is correct because Article 85 mandates that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting in one session and the date appointed for the first sitting in the next session.
- Statement III is correct because Article 123 establishes that an ordinance must be tabled before both houses and automatically lapses six weeks after reassembly unless disapproved earlier.
- Since the maximum possible recess between sessions is six months (Statement II) and the maximum survival period after reassembly is six weeks (Statement III), both statements work together to explain why the ultimate lifespan of an ordinance is mathematically capped at six months and six weeks, validating option (a).
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The structural lifespan of an ordinance is a direct mathematical outcome of clear constitutional provisions.
- Statement I is correct because an ordinance cannot last indefinitely and faces a strict constitutional expiration window.
- Statement II is correct because Article 85 mandates that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting in one session and the date appointed for the first sitting in the next session.
- Statement III is correct because Article 123 establishes that an ordinance must be tabled before both houses and automatically lapses six weeks after reassembly unless disapproved earlier.
- Since the maximum possible recess between sessions is six months (Statement II) and the maximum survival period after reassembly is six weeks (Statement III), both statements work together to explain why the ultimate lifespan of an ordinance is mathematically capped at six months and six weeks, validating option (a).
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