UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 16 June 2026

Solution: D

Option (a) is a core implication: The President of India is elected, not a hereditary ruler.

Option (b) is an implication: In a republic, particularly a democratic republic like India, the ultimate source of authority (political sovereignty) is considered to reside in the people. The Preamble begins with “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA…”.

Option (c) is an implication: The office of the President, the highest public office, is open to all eligible citizens, signifying the absence of any privileged class entitled to rule by birth.

Option (d) is NOT an implication: A country’s form of government (republic or monarchy) does not dictate its ability to have diplomatic relations with countries of other forms of government. India, as a republic, maintains diplomatic relations with numerous monarchical states. Foreign policy is based on national interests and international norms, not on the internal governmental structure of other nations.

Solution: C

The opening words of the Preamble, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA,” are profoundly significant.

1. Source of Authority: They declare that the Constitution has been adopted, enacted, and given to themselves by the people of India. Thus, the ultimate source of the Constitution’s authority is the people.
2. Ultimate Sovereignty: This phrase also implies that political sovereignty in India resides with the people. The government and its organs derive their powers from the people. This is the essence of popular sovereignty.
3. Enactment by Representatives: While the Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly, the members of this Assembly were representatives of the people of India (though indirectly elected by provincial assemblies, which were themselves elected on a limited franchise).
4. The act of adopting and enacting the Constitution in the name of “We, the People” underscores that it was done on behalf of and for the people.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 3 of the Constitution stipulates that a bill for forming new states, altering areas, boundaries, or names of existing states can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the prior recommendation of the President.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the concerned state legislature for expressing its views within a specified period. However, the President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. This underscores the flexibility of the Indian federation, often described as an ‘indestructible Union of destructible states’.
• Statement 3 is correct. Article 4(2) explicitly states that any law referred to in Article 2 (admission or establishment of new states) or Article 3 (formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states) shall not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.

Solution: A

Article 12 of the Constitution defines the term ‘State’ for the purposes of Part III (Fundamental Rights). The definition is inclusive and not exhaustive.

1. The Parliament of India is explicitly mentioned as part of the ‘Government and Parliament of India’, hence it is ‘State’.
2. A Municipal Corporation falls under ‘all local authorities’ within the territory of India, and thus is ‘State’.
3. Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), through various judicial pronouncements, has been held to be an ‘authority’ under the control of the Government of India and thus falls within the definition of ‘State’. The Supreme Court has interpreted ‘other authorities’ to include bodies that are agencies or instrumentalities of the State, based on factors like financial assistance, state control, and nature of functions.
4. A private company performing purely commercial activities with no state funding or control would generally not fall under the definition of ‘State’. While the definition has been expanded, it typically does not cover entities that have no significant nexus with the government or do not perform public functions.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 13(1) states that all laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of the Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of Part III (Fundamental Rights), shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.
• Statement 2 is correct. The doctrine of severability (or separability) implies that if an unconstitutional provision of a law can be separated from the valid provisions, then only the unconstitutional provision is declared void by the court, and the rest of the statute remains operative.
• Statement 3 is correct. Article 13(2) mandates that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III, and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void. Such a post-constitutional law is void from its very inception (void ab initio).