Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
The Climate Investment Opportunities in India’s Cooling Sector report, which warned that severe heat waves could put nearly 4.5 % of India’s GDP at risk by 2030 due to heat-stress induced productivity drops, was released by which one of the following organizations?
Correct
Solution: B
- The report “Climate Investment Opportunities in India’s Cooling Sector” was released as a World Bank-supported study in collaboration with various partners. The report highlighted that rising temperatures and severe heat waves could place nearly 5% of India’s GDP (about USD 329 billion) at risk by 2030 due to heat-stress-induced productivity losses. It emphasized the need for sustainable cooling solutions, expansion of cold-chain infrastructure, energy-efficient cooling technologies, and climate-resilient urban planning.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The report “Climate Investment Opportunities in India’s Cooling Sector” was released as a World Bank-supported study in collaboration with various partners. The report highlighted that rising temperatures and severe heat waves could place nearly 5% of India’s GDP (about USD 329 billion) at risk by 2030 due to heat-stress-induced productivity losses. It emphasized the need for sustainable cooling solutions, expansion of cold-chain infrastructure, energy-efficient cooling technologies, and climate-resilient urban planning.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
In the context of climate vulnerability and public health, consider the following statements regarding Wet-Bulb Temperature:
- It is the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled by the evaporation of water at a constant pressure.
- A wet-bulb temperature of 35°C is generally considered the absolute threshold of human survivability, beyond which the body can no longer cool itself through sweating.
- High relative humidity lowers the wet-bulb temperature, making extreme heat safer for outdoor laborers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. Wet-bulb temperature is the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled through the process of evaporation of water at constant pressure. It is measured using a thermometer whose bulb is covered with a wet cloth and exposed to airflow. Wet-bulb temperature combines the effects of both air temperature and humidity and is therefore a more realistic indicator of heat stress on the human body than dry-bulb temperature alone.
- Statement 2 is correct. A wet-bulb temperature of approximately 35°C has long been considered a theoretical upper limit for human survival. At this level, the human body can no longer effectively dissipate heat through sweating because the surrounding air is already saturated with moisture. Even healthy individuals resting in the shade with unlimited water intake may face life-threatening heat stress if exposed for prolonged periods. Recent research suggests severe health risks may occur even at somewhat lower wet-bulb temperatures, but 35°C remains the widely cited benchmark for survivability.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. High relative humidity increases, rather than lowers, the wet-bulb temperature. When humidity is high, sweat evaporates less efficiently, reducing the body’s ability to cool itself. As a result, heat becomes more dangerous, not safer, for outdoor workers and vulnerable populations.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. Wet-bulb temperature is the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled through the process of evaporation of water at constant pressure. It is measured using a thermometer whose bulb is covered with a wet cloth and exposed to airflow. Wet-bulb temperature combines the effects of both air temperature and humidity and is therefore a more realistic indicator of heat stress on the human body than dry-bulb temperature alone.
- Statement 2 is correct. A wet-bulb temperature of approximately 35°C has long been considered a theoretical upper limit for human survival. At this level, the human body can no longer effectively dissipate heat through sweating because the surrounding air is already saturated with moisture. Even healthy individuals resting in the shade with unlimited water intake may face life-threatening heat stress if exposed for prolonged periods. Recent research suggests severe health risks may occur even at somewhat lower wet-bulb temperatures, but 35°C remains the widely cited benchmark for survivability.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. High relative humidity increases, rather than lowers, the wet-bulb temperature. When humidity is high, sweat evaporates less efficiently, reducing the body’s ability to cool itself. As a result, heat becomes more dangerous, not safer, for outdoor workers and vulnerable populations.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to ground-level ozone (GLO) pollution, consider the following statements:
- It is a primary atmospheric pollutant directly emitted by industrial operations and internal combustion engines.
- Urban forest reserves and green belts, such as Lutyens’ Delhi, act as absolute biological sinks that consistently suppress ozone levels.
- The National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) measure ozone safety thresholds primarily against a continuous 24-hour average limit of 100 micrograms per cubic meter.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Statement 1 is incorrect. Ground-level ozone (GLO) is not a primary pollutant directly emitted into the atmosphere. It is a secondary pollutant formed through photochemical reactions involving nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. Major sources of these precursor pollutants include vehicular emissions, industrial activities, thermal power plants, and the use of solvents. Thus, ozone itself is not directly released from industrial operations or engines.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Urban forests and green belts do not function as absolute biological sinks that always reduce ozone concentrations. Vegetation can help improve air quality in many situations, but the relationship between plants and ozone is complex. Some plant species emit biogenic volatile organic compounds (BVOCs), which can contribute to ozone formation under suitable atmospheric conditions. Consequently, green areas cannot be assumed to consistently suppress ozone levels in all circumstances.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), 2009, ozone standards are prescribed for 1-hour and 8-hour averaging periods, not primarily for a continuous 24-hour average. The standards are:- 1-hour average: 180 µg/m³
- 8-hour average: 100 µg/m³
The value of 100 µg/m³ is associated with the 8-hour average, not a 24-hour average limit.
Therefore, all three statements are incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Statement 1 is incorrect. Ground-level ozone (GLO) is not a primary pollutant directly emitted into the atmosphere. It is a secondary pollutant formed through photochemical reactions involving nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. Major sources of these precursor pollutants include vehicular emissions, industrial activities, thermal power plants, and the use of solvents. Thus, ozone itself is not directly released from industrial operations or engines.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Urban forests and green belts do not function as absolute biological sinks that always reduce ozone concentrations. Vegetation can help improve air quality in many situations, but the relationship between plants and ozone is complex. Some plant species emit biogenic volatile organic compounds (BVOCs), which can contribute to ozone formation under suitable atmospheric conditions. Consequently, green areas cannot be assumed to consistently suppress ozone levels in all circumstances.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), 2009, ozone standards are prescribed for 1-hour and 8-hour averaging periods, not primarily for a continuous 24-hour average. The standards are:- 1-hour average: 180 µg/m³
- 8-hour average: 100 µg/m³
The value of 100 µg/m³ is associated with the 8-hour average, not a 24-hour average limit.
Therefore, all three statements are incorrect.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
With reference to India’s international land borders, which of the following Indian States share a land boundary with Myanmar?
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Assam
- Nagaland
- Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
- India shares a highly strategic 1,643-kilometer-long international land border with Myanmar. This boundary runs along the rugged terrain of the northeastern region and directly abuts four Indian States: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram.
- Assam does not share a direct land border with Myanmar, as it is geographically separated by Nagaland and Manipur.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- India shares a highly strategic 1,643-kilometer-long international land border with Myanmar. This boundary runs along the rugged terrain of the northeastern region and directly abuts four Indian States: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram.
- Assam does not share a direct land border with Myanmar, as it is geographically separated by Nagaland and Manipur.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
The PM SVANidhi scheme, launched to assist urban street vendors with collateral-free working capital, is managed as a joint administrative responsibility between which of the following bodies?
Correct
Solution: B
PM SVANidhi is structured as a joint administrative initiative between the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the Department of Financial Services (DFS). Because street vendors operate primarily within municipal limits, MoHUA handles urban deployment and identification, while the DFS coordinates with banking institutions to ensure smooth, collateral-free credit delivery channels.
Incorrect
Solution: B
PM SVANidhi is structured as a joint administrative initiative between the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the Department of Financial Services (DFS). Because street vendors operate primarily within municipal limits, MoHUA handles urban deployment and identification, while the DFS coordinates with banking institutions to ensure smooth, collateral-free credit delivery channels.
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