The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to trademark laws in India, consider the following:
Statement I: India’s Trade Marks Act, 1999, does not provide automatic protection for names of military operations unless they are formally registered as intellectual property.
Statement II: The Registrar of Trademarks has the power to reject applications that are likely to hurt public sentiment or represent a government association deceptively.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: B
- Both statements address the intersection of trademark law and national sentiment.
- Statement I is correct; under the current legal framework, the Ministry of Defence does not automatically “own” the names of military operations as trademarks. Anyone can theoretically apply for them.
- Statement II is correct as it highlights the “check and balance” mechanism. Sections 9 and 11 of the Trade Marks Act give the Registrar the authority to block registrations that could be considered “scandalous,” “obscene,” or “offending” national pride.
- While both are true, Statement II does not explain why the protection isn’t automatic; rather, it describes a remedy or a hurdle in the registration process. The lack of automatic protection is a matter of administrative policy (Statement I), whereas the Registrar’s power is a statutory authority (Statement II).
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Both statements address the intersection of trademark law and national sentiment.
- Statement I is correct; under the current legal framework, the Ministry of Defence does not automatically “own” the names of military operations as trademarks. Anyone can theoretically apply for them.
- Statement II is correct as it highlights the “check and balance” mechanism. Sections 9 and 11 of the Trade Marks Act give the Registrar the authority to block registrations that could be considered “scandalous,” “obscene,” or “offending” national pride.
- While both are true, Statement II does not explain why the protection isn’t automatic; rather, it describes a remedy or a hurdle in the registration process. The lack of automatic protection is a matter of administrative policy (Statement I), whereas the Registrar’s power is a statutory authority (Statement II).
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the potential application(s) of 2D metals like bismuth and lead?
- Creation of low-energy, super-fast quantum computing systems.
- Fabrication of wearable sensors and flexible transistors.
- Development of high-efficiency LEDs and photodetectors in optoelectronics.
- Enhancing the sensitivity of medical diagnostic biosensors.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
- 2D metals are ultra-thin metallic materials that are only one or a few atoms thick, meaning their thickness exists in just two dimensions while electrons move freely within a flat plane. Unlike bulk metals, these materials exhibit quantum confinement effects, leading to unusual electrical, optical, and magnetic properties.
- All four applications are correct.
- Because they allow for externally modulated conductivity and exhibit the nonlinear Hall effect, they are ideal for quantum computing, where fast and low-energy switching is required. Their extreme thinness (atomically thin) and durability make them perfect for flexible electronics, such as wearable health monitors or flexible smartphone screens.
- In photonics and optoelectronics, their unique energy levels allow for more efficient light-matter interactions, leading to better LEDs and lasers.
- Finally, their high surface-area-to-volume ratio makes them exceptionally sensitive to environmental changes, which is a key requirement for medical biosensors that detect trace amounts of biological markers.
- The fabrication of these materials using high-pressure techniques marks a significant step toward making these theoretical applications a practical reality. As scientists continue to explore their topological properties, the range of applications is expected to expand into fields like energy harvesting and advanced catalysis.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- 2D metals are ultra-thin metallic materials that are only one or a few atoms thick, meaning their thickness exists in just two dimensions while electrons move freely within a flat plane. Unlike bulk metals, these materials exhibit quantum confinement effects, leading to unusual electrical, optical, and magnetic properties.
- All four applications are correct.
- Because they allow for externally modulated conductivity and exhibit the nonlinear Hall effect, they are ideal for quantum computing, where fast and low-energy switching is required. Their extreme thinness (atomically thin) and durability make them perfect for flexible electronics, such as wearable health monitors or flexible smartphone screens.
- In photonics and optoelectronics, their unique energy levels allow for more efficient light-matter interactions, leading to better LEDs and lasers.
- Finally, their high surface-area-to-volume ratio makes them exceptionally sensitive to environmental changes, which is a key requirement for medical biosensors that detect trace amounts of biological markers.
- The fabrication of these materials using high-pressure techniques marks a significant step toward making these theoretical applications a practical reality. As scientists continue to explore their topological properties, the range of applications is expected to expand into fields like energy harvesting and advanced catalysis.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following table regarding Ramsar Sites in India:
Ramsar Site Location (State) Distinctive Feature 1. Menar Rajasthan Known as the “Bird Village” 2. Khichan Gujarat Major wintering site for Demoiselle cranes 3. Chilika Lake Odisha First Ramsar site designated in India Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
- Pair 1 is correctly matched. Menar, located in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan, has recently been designated as a Ramsar site. It is famously known as the “Bird Village” because of the community-driven conservation efforts by local residents who have long prohibited hunting and fishing to protect over 200 bird species.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. While Khichan is a major wintering site for Demoiselle cranes and a critical stop along the Central Asian Flyway, it is located in the Phalodi district of Rajasthan, not Gujarat.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched. Chilika Lake in Odisha, along with Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan, were the first sites in India to be designated under the Ramsar Convention in 1981.
- India currently has 91 Ramsar sites, the highest number in Asia and the third-highest globally. These sites are recognized for their international importance in providing ecosystem services and sustaining local livelihoods.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Pair 1 is correctly matched. Menar, located in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan, has recently been designated as a Ramsar site. It is famously known as the “Bird Village” because of the community-driven conservation efforts by local residents who have long prohibited hunting and fishing to protect over 200 bird species.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. While Khichan is a major wintering site for Demoiselle cranes and a critical stop along the Central Asian Flyway, it is located in the Phalodi district of Rajasthan, not Gujarat.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched. Chilika Lake in Odisha, along with Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan, were the first sites in India to be designated under the Ramsar Convention in 1981.
- India currently has 91 Ramsar sites, the highest number in Asia and the third-highest globally. These sites are recognized for their international importance in providing ecosystem services and sustaining local livelihoods.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the International Air Transport Association (IATA):
- It was established as a direct outcome of the 1944 Chicago Convention to replace the International Air Traffic Association.
- The association serves as a global trade body representing the vast majority of total air traffic worldwide.
- While it manages technical aviation standards, it has historically avoided involvement in commercial fare regulations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The International Air Transport Association (IATA) is a critical global trade association for the airline industry.
- Statement 1 is correct; it was founded in April 1945 in Havana, Cuba, acting as a successor to the 1919 International Air Traffic Association. Its creation was aimed at helping regulate the industry following the Chicago Convention of 1944, which laid the groundwork for international civil aviation.
- Statement 2 is also correct because IATA represents some 317 airlines across over 120 countries, accounting for approximately 82% of global air traffic. This scale allows it to advocate effectively for airline interests and lead the industry in creating technical and commercial standards.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because, during its early decades, IATA was famously engaged in price-fixing and fare regulation, holding its first major tariff conference in Rio de Janeiro in 1947. Over time, it modernized into a platform focused on policy, safety, and innovation. Today, its core functions include the World Air Transport Summit (WATS), which addresses contemporary challenges such as Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) and decarbonization. By standardizing ticketing, cargo, and financial settlement frameworks, IATA simplifies the complexities of international travel.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The International Air Transport Association (IATA) is a critical global trade association for the airline industry.
- Statement 1 is correct; it was founded in April 1945 in Havana, Cuba, acting as a successor to the 1919 International Air Traffic Association. Its creation was aimed at helping regulate the industry following the Chicago Convention of 1944, which laid the groundwork for international civil aviation.
- Statement 2 is also correct because IATA represents some 317 airlines across over 120 countries, accounting for approximately 82% of global air traffic. This scale allows it to advocate effectively for airline interests and lead the industry in creating technical and commercial standards.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because, during its early decades, IATA was famously engaged in price-fixing and fare regulation, holding its first major tariff conference in Rio de Janeiro in 1947. Over time, it modernized into a platform focused on policy, safety, and innovation. Today, its core functions include the World Air Transport Summit (WATS), which addresses contemporary challenges such as Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) and decarbonization. By standardizing ticketing, cargo, and financial settlement frameworks, IATA simplifies the complexities of international travel.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsIn the context of the SEBI framework for ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) debt securities, what does the “Independent Review Mechanism” specifically require?
Correct
Solution: C
- Under the new SEBI operational framework for ESG debt securities, the Independent Review Mechanism is a cornerstone for ensuring the integrity of the “green” or “social” label. It mandates that issuers must appoint independent third-party reviewers or certifiers to validate that the bonds and the projects they fund actually align with recognized ESG standards.
- This process is crucial to prevent greenwashing, where entities might misrepresent the environmental or social benefits of their projects to attract funding. By requiring an external validation, SEBI aims to increase investor trust and transparency in the burgeoning ESG market.
- This mechanism complements the disclosure requirements, where issuers must provide details on project eligibility and fund distribution in their initial offer documents. The framework is designed to align with global benchmarks, making it easier for international investors who prioritize sustainability to participate in the Indian debt market.
- This move reflects a broader global trend toward standardized and verified ESG reporting, ensuring that capital is genuinely directed toward operations that reduce environmental harm or provide social benefits.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Under the new SEBI operational framework for ESG debt securities, the Independent Review Mechanism is a cornerstone for ensuring the integrity of the “green” or “social” label. It mandates that issuers must appoint independent third-party reviewers or certifiers to validate that the bonds and the projects they fund actually align with recognized ESG standards.
- This process is crucial to prevent greenwashing, where entities might misrepresent the environmental or social benefits of their projects to attract funding. By requiring an external validation, SEBI aims to increase investor trust and transparency in the burgeoning ESG market.
- This mechanism complements the disclosure requirements, where issuers must provide details on project eligibility and fund distribution in their initial offer documents. The framework is designed to align with global benchmarks, making it easier for international investors who prioritize sustainability to participate in the Indian debt market.
- This move reflects a broader global trend toward standardized and verified ESG reporting, ensuring that capital is genuinely directed toward operations that reduce environmental harm or provide social benefits.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Electric Passenger Vehicle Manufacturing Scheme’, recently in the news, primarily aims to:
Correct
Solution: D
- The Electric Passenger Vehicle Manufacturing Scheme, notified in June 2025 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI), is a strategic policy move to bolster India’s position in the global green economy.
- The correct option is (d). The scheme provides a framework of tax benefits and investment-linked incentives to attract both domestic and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Unlike simple consumer subsidies, this scheme focuses on the supply side—encouraging the establishment of manufacturing plants within India.
- This is intended to boost local employment, facilitate the adoption of clean technology, and ensure self-reliance in the EV sector. By creating a robust manufacturing base, the government hopes to reduce the long-term dependency on crude oil imports and align with the national target of achieving Net Zero by 2070.
- The Project Management Agency (PMA) acts as the implementing body for this scheme. It does not mandate conversions (c) nor is it limited to hydrogen cells (b). Instead, it positions India as a competitive global EV manufacturing destination, catering to the growing demand for sustainable mobility solutions.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Electric Passenger Vehicle Manufacturing Scheme, notified in June 2025 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI), is a strategic policy move to bolster India’s position in the global green economy.
- The correct option is (d). The scheme provides a framework of tax benefits and investment-linked incentives to attract both domestic and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Unlike simple consumer subsidies, this scheme focuses on the supply side—encouraging the establishment of manufacturing plants within India.
- This is intended to boost local employment, facilitate the adoption of clean technology, and ensure self-reliance in the EV sector. By creating a robust manufacturing base, the government hopes to reduce the long-term dependency on crude oil imports and align with the national target of achieving Net Zero by 2070.
- The Project Management Agency (PMA) acts as the implementing body for this scheme. It does not mandate conversions (c) nor is it limited to hydrogen cells (b). Instead, it positions India as a competitive global EV manufacturing destination, catering to the growing demand for sustainable mobility solutions.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Asian Development Bank (ADB):
- Its founding is inspired by the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP).
- The majority of the Bank’s members are from the Asia-Pacific region.
- India holds the third-largest share in the bank, following Japan and the United States.
- The ADB-Japan Scholarship Program is a core function aimed at providing postgraduate education to students from developing member countries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional multilateral development bank established in 1966 to promote economic growth, regional cooperation, and poverty reduction in Asia and the Pacific.
Objectives
- Reduce poverty and inequality
- Promote inclusive and sustainable growth
- Support climate resilience and green transition
- Strengthen regional integration
- ADB’s current long-term strategy focuses on climate action, gender equality, digital transformation, and private sector development.
Sources of Funds
- Ordinary Capital Resources (OCR)
- Raised through international capital markets
- Used for non-concessional loans
- Asian Development Fund (ADF)
- Provides concessional loans and grants
- For low-income member countries
- Co-financing partnerships
- With governments, private sector, and other MDBs
Major Areas of Lending
- Infrastructure (transport, energy, urban development)
- Renewable energy and climate finance
- Agriculture and rural development
- Health and education
- Financial sector reforms
India is one of ADB’s largest borrowers, particularly for metro rail, renewable energy, and urban infrastructure projects.
- Statement 1 and 2 are correct; the bank was founded on 19 December 1966, with its roots in UNESCAP It has 69 members as of 2024, 50 of which are from the Asia-Pacific.
- Statement 4 is also correct; the ADB-Japan Scholarship Program (ADB-JSP) is a well-known initiative for capacity building in developing nations.
- Statement 3 is incorrect regarding India’s rank. According to the 2020 data provided, the major shareholders are Japan and the USA (tied at 15.571%), followed by China (6.429%), and then India (6.317%). Thus, India is the fourth-largest shareholder, not the third.
- The ADB functions as an observer at the United Nations and focuses on infrastructure, climate resilience, and poverty alleviation.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional multilateral development bank established in 1966 to promote economic growth, regional cooperation, and poverty reduction in Asia and the Pacific.
Objectives
- Reduce poverty and inequality
- Promote inclusive and sustainable growth
- Support climate resilience and green transition
- Strengthen regional integration
- ADB’s current long-term strategy focuses on climate action, gender equality, digital transformation, and private sector development.
Sources of Funds
- Ordinary Capital Resources (OCR)
- Raised through international capital markets
- Used for non-concessional loans
- Asian Development Fund (ADF)
- Provides concessional loans and grants
- For low-income member countries
- Co-financing partnerships
- With governments, private sector, and other MDBs
Major Areas of Lending
- Infrastructure (transport, energy, urban development)
- Renewable energy and climate finance
- Agriculture and rural development
- Health and education
- Financial sector reforms
India is one of ADB’s largest borrowers, particularly for metro rail, renewable energy, and urban infrastructure projects.
- Statement 1 and 2 are correct; the bank was founded on 19 December 1966, with its roots in UNESCAP It has 69 members as of 2024, 50 of which are from the Asia-Pacific.
- Statement 4 is also correct; the ADB-Japan Scholarship Program (ADB-JSP) is a well-known initiative for capacity building in developing nations.
- Statement 3 is incorrect regarding India’s rank. According to the 2020 data provided, the major shareholders are Japan and the USA (tied at 15.571%), followed by China (6.429%), and then India (6.317%). Thus, India is the fourth-largest shareholder, not the third.
- The ADB functions as an observer at the United Nations and focuses on infrastructure, climate resilience, and poverty alleviation.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following best describes the ‘BharatGen’ initiative?
Correct
Solution: B
- BharatGen is a technological milestone in India’s AI landscape.
- The correct option is (b). It is a multimodal Large Language Model (LLM), which means it can process and generate text, speech, and images. Unlike many global LLMs that are predominantly English-centric, BharatGen is trained on 22 Indian languages, including various regional dialects. This linguistic diversity is crucial for a country where a significant portion of the population does not use English as their primary language for digital interaction.
- Developed by IIT Bombay and funded under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS), the project aligns with the “India’s Techade” vision. It aims to provide ethical and context-aware AI solutions for governance, health, and agriculture. For instance, it can be integrated into platforms like CPGRAMS for better grievance redressal or used in AI-powered telemedicine.
- The initiative also emphasizes cultural relevance, ensuring that the AI reflects Indian societal values and ethos, thereby bridging the digital divide for rural and underserved communities as envisioned under NEP 2020.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- BharatGen is a technological milestone in India’s AI landscape.
- The correct option is (b). It is a multimodal Large Language Model (LLM), which means it can process and generate text, speech, and images. Unlike many global LLMs that are predominantly English-centric, BharatGen is trained on 22 Indian languages, including various regional dialects. This linguistic diversity is crucial for a country where a significant portion of the population does not use English as their primary language for digital interaction.
- Developed by IIT Bombay and funded under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS), the project aligns with the “India’s Techade” vision. It aims to provide ethical and context-aware AI solutions for governance, health, and agriculture. For instance, it can be integrated into platforms like CPGRAMS for better grievance redressal or used in AI-powered telemedicine.
- The initiative also emphasizes cultural relevance, ensuring that the AI reflects Indian societal values and ethos, thereby bridging the digital divide for rural and underserved communities as envisioned under NEP 2020.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe Inga Hydropower Project, often cited for its potential to surpass the Three Gorges Dam in capacity, is located on which river?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Inga Hydropower Project is situated on the Congo River in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC). Specifically, it is located at the Inga Falls, which is one of the most powerful natural waterfalls in the world. The project consists of a series of dams; Inga 1 and Inga 2 are currently operational, while Inga 3 and the massive Grand Inga are in the planning stages.
- The potential of the Grand Inga project is immense, which would exceed the capacity of the Three Gorges Dam in China. Unlike many large dams that create massive reservoirs, the Inga projects are planned as run-of-the-river systems, which minimizes the environmental footprint related to flooding large areas.
- The financing and development of this project involve international partners like the World Bank.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Inga Hydropower Project is situated on the Congo River in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC). Specifically, it is located at the Inga Falls, which is one of the most powerful natural waterfalls in the world. The project consists of a series of dams; Inga 1 and Inga 2 are currently operational, while Inga 3 and the massive Grand Inga are in the planning stages.
- The potential of the Grand Inga project is immense, which would exceed the capacity of the Three Gorges Dam in China. Unlike many large dams that create massive reservoirs, the Inga projects are planned as run-of-the-river systems, which minimizes the environmental footprint related to flooding large areas.
- The financing and development of this project involve international partners like the World Bank.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN):
- It was established through a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the World Bank.
- The network’s primary tool for detection is the surveillance of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP).
- The network operates mainly through digital remote sensing without any ground-level medical staff.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. While it is a collaborative effort, the NPSN (formerly NPSP) was established in 1997 by the Government of India in partnership with the World Health Organization (WHO), not the World Bank.
- Statement 2 is correct. The cornerstone of polio surveillance is the tracking and investigation of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Since poliovirus causes sudden muscle weakness, any child showing such symptoms is tested to ensure that the cause is not poliovirus. This rigorous tracking is what allowed India to maintain its zero-transmission status.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPSN is a highly field-intensive network. It has over 200 field units and employs Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) who work on the ground across all states and union territories. They provide technical support for pulse polio campaigns, train local health officials, and conduct lab-confirmed verification of disease cases. It is one of the world’s largest and most successful human-led surveillance networks, now assisting in the elimination of other diseases like measles and rubella.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. While it is a collaborative effort, the NPSN (formerly NPSP) was established in 1997 by the Government of India in partnership with the World Health Organization (WHO), not the World Bank.
- Statement 2 is correct. The cornerstone of polio surveillance is the tracking and investigation of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Since poliovirus causes sudden muscle weakness, any child showing such symptoms is tested to ensure that the cause is not poliovirus. This rigorous tracking is what allowed India to maintain its zero-transmission status.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPSN is a highly field-intensive network. It has over 200 field units and employs Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) who work on the ground across all states and union territories. They provide technical support for pulse polio campaigns, train local health officials, and conduct lab-confirmed verification of disease cases. It is one of the world’s largest and most successful human-led surveillance networks, now assisting in the elimination of other diseases like measles and rubella.
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