Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Pathogen/Strain Region/Country where Endemic or Recently Outbroken 1. Bundibugyo strain (Ebola) Democratic Republic of Congo & Uganda 2. Andean strain (Hantavirus) Argentina 3. Zaire strain (Ebola) West Africa How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
- Bundibugyo strain (Ebola) — Democratic Republic of Congo & Uganda
The Bundibugyo ebolavirus was first identified in the Uganda in 2007 and has also caused outbreaks in the Democratic Republic of the Congo. It is one of the recognized species of Ebola virus known to infect humans.
- Andean strain (Hantavirus) — Argentina
The Andes virus (Andean strain) is endemic to parts of southern South America, particularly Argentina and Chile. It is notable among hantaviruses because limited person-to-person transmission has been documented, unlike most hantavirus species.
- Zaire strain (Ebola) — West Africa
The Zaire ebolavirus is the most virulent Ebola species and was responsible for the devastating 2014–2016 West African Ebola epidemic affecting countries such as Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone. Although originally identified in Central Africa, it has caused major outbreaks in West Africa.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Bundibugyo strain (Ebola) — Democratic Republic of Congo & Uganda
The Bundibugyo ebolavirus was first identified in the Uganda in 2007 and has also caused outbreaks in the Democratic Republic of the Congo. It is one of the recognized species of Ebola virus known to infect humans.
- Andean strain (Hantavirus) — Argentina
The Andes virus (Andean strain) is endemic to parts of southern South America, particularly Argentina and Chile. It is notable among hantaviruses because limited person-to-person transmission has been documented, unlike most hantavirus species.
- Zaire strain (Ebola) — West Africa
The Zaire ebolavirus is the most virulent Ebola species and was responsible for the devastating 2014–2016 West African Ebola epidemic affecting countries such as Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone. Although originally identified in Central Africa, it has caused major outbreaks in West Africa.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
If an exotic biological pathogen is detected at an international airport in India, which Ministry acts as the primary nodal agency for establishing immediate border quarantine and biomedical screening protocols?
Correct
Solution: C
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) is the primary nodal ministry responsible for public health preparedness, disease surveillance, quarantine measures, and response to infectious disease outbreaks in India. When an exotic or emerging biological pathogen is detected at an international airport, the Ministry coordinates immediate public health actions such as:
- Establishment of quarantine and isolation protocols.
- Health screening of passengers and crew.
- Contact tracing and epidemiological investigations.
- Deployment of medical teams and laboratory testing facilities.
- Coordination with state health authorities and international agencies such as the World Health Organization.
Under the legal framework of the Aircraft (Public Health) Rules, 1954, the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), and provisions of the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, the MoHFW exercises overall authority for health-related border control measures.
The Ministry of Civil Aviation facilitates airport operations and logistics but is not the nodal public health authority. The Ministry of Home Affairs may assist in enforcement and coordination during emergencies, while the Ministry of Science and Technology supports research and scientific assessment rather than frontline quarantine operations.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) is the primary nodal ministry responsible for public health preparedness, disease surveillance, quarantine measures, and response to infectious disease outbreaks in India. When an exotic or emerging biological pathogen is detected at an international airport, the Ministry coordinates immediate public health actions such as:
- Establishment of quarantine and isolation protocols.
- Health screening of passengers and crew.
- Contact tracing and epidemiological investigations.
- Deployment of medical teams and laboratory testing facilities.
- Coordination with state health authorities and international agencies such as the World Health Organization.
Under the legal framework of the Aircraft (Public Health) Rules, 1954, the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), and provisions of the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, the MoHFW exercises overall authority for health-related border control measures.
The Ministry of Civil Aviation facilitates airport operations and logistics but is not the nodal public health authority. The Ministry of Home Affairs may assist in enforcement and coordination during emergencies, while the Ministry of Science and Technology supports research and scientific assessment rather than frontline quarantine operations.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Election Commission of India possesses the administrative power to conduct a comprehensive, state-wide Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls that departs from the ordinary, routine modalities of voter verification.
Statement II: Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, is a specific, autonomous, and enabling statutory mechanism designed by Parliament to handle exceptional exigencies affecting the electoral process.
Statement III: Article 324 of the Constitution of India serves as a continuous wellspring of executive power that vests the Election Commission with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, which includes the systemic purification of voter databases.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct. The Election Commission of India (ECI) can undertake a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls when it considers such an exercise necessary for ensuring the accuracy and integrity of voter lists. An SIR is distinct from routine annual revisions or continuous updating because it involves a more comprehensive verification process.
- Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 empowers the Election Commission to direct a special revision of electoral rolls for any constituency or part thereof in a manner it deems fit. This provision serves as a specific statutory mechanism enabling the Commission to respond to exceptional circumstances requiring a thorough revision beyond ordinary procedures.
- Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I. Article 324 of the Constitution vests in the Election Commission the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. The Supreme Court has repeatedly interpreted Article 324 as conferring broad residual powers on the Commission to ensure free and fair elections where legislation is silent or supplementary action is necessary. Maintaining accurate electoral rolls and removing ineligible, duplicate, or erroneous entries are integral to this constitutional responsibility.
- Thus, Statement I is supported by both the specific statutory authority under Section 21(3) and the broader constitutional authority under Article 324.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct. The Election Commission of India (ECI) can undertake a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls when it considers such an exercise necessary for ensuring the accuracy and integrity of voter lists. An SIR is distinct from routine annual revisions or continuous updating because it involves a more comprehensive verification process.
- Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 empowers the Election Commission to direct a special revision of electoral rolls for any constituency or part thereof in a manner it deems fit. This provision serves as a specific statutory mechanism enabling the Commission to respond to exceptional circumstances requiring a thorough revision beyond ordinary procedures.
- Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I. Article 324 of the Constitution vests in the Election Commission the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. The Supreme Court has repeatedly interpreted Article 324 as conferring broad residual powers on the Commission to ensure free and fair elections where legislation is silent or supplementary action is necessary. Maintaining accurate electoral rolls and removing ineligible, duplicate, or erroneous entries are integral to this constitutional responsibility.
- Thus, Statement I is supported by both the specific statutory authority under Section 21(3) and the broader constitutional authority under Article 324.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the SARTHAK-PDS scheme recently approved by the Union Cabinet:
- The newly approved SARTHAK-PDS scheme merges financial support for intra-state foodgrain movement and FPS dealer margins under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) with the SMART-PDS technology modernisation scheme.
- The entire financial outlay for the five-year extension is allocated under the 16th Finance Commission cycle award.
- The scheme introduces SAKSHAM, which is an AI-driven beneficiary registry designed specifically to identify and systematically weed out duplicate and ghost beneficiaries from the public distribution system.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. The SARTHAK-PDS (Scheme for Assistance in Ration Transport and Handling–Income with Automation in PDS) has been approved as an umbrella scheme by integrating two existing schemes: (i) Assistance to State Agencies for intra-State movement of foodgrains and Fair Price Shop (FPS) dealers’ margin under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), and (ii) the SMART-PDS scheme focused on technology-driven modernization of the Public Distribution System (PDS).
- Statement 2 is correct. The scheme will operate during the award period of the 16th Finance Commission and has been approved for the five-year period from April 2026 to March 2031 with a central outlay of ₹25,530 crore. Thus, the five-year extension falls within the 16th Finance Commission cycle.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme introduces three AI-enabled modules—NIRMAL, ASHA, and SAKSHAM. However, NIRMAL, not SAKSHAM, is the AI-driven real-time beneficiary registry intended to improve beneficiary identification and reduce leakages, including duplicate or ineligible beneficiaries. Therefore, attributing this function specifically to SAKSHAM is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. The SARTHAK-PDS (Scheme for Assistance in Ration Transport and Handling–Income with Automation in PDS) has been approved as an umbrella scheme by integrating two existing schemes: (i) Assistance to State Agencies for intra-State movement of foodgrains and Fair Price Shop (FPS) dealers’ margin under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), and (ii) the SMART-PDS scheme focused on technology-driven modernization of the Public Distribution System (PDS).
- Statement 2 is correct. The scheme will operate during the award period of the 16th Finance Commission and has been approved for the five-year period from April 2026 to March 2031 with a central outlay of ₹25,530 crore. Thus, the five-year extension falls within the 16th Finance Commission cycle.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme introduces three AI-enabled modules—NIRMAL, ASHA, and SAKSHAM. However, NIRMAL, not SAKSHAM, is the AI-driven real-time beneficiary registry intended to improve beneficiary identification and reduce leakages, including duplicate or ineligible beneficiaries. Therefore, attributing this function specifically to SAKSHAM is incorrect.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following columns regarding bilateral and multilateral frameworks involving India:
Column 1 (Initiative) Column 2 (Geopolitical Context) Column 3 (Strategic Purpose) 1. Pax Silica A. US-led strategic technology coalition I. Secure semiconductor, critical mineral, and AI supply chains 2. FORGE B. Quad-level multilateral platform II. Protect sensitive supply chains from single-source monopolies 3. TRUST C. Bilateral India-US initiative III. Strengthen resilient supply chains in semiconductors and materials How many of the above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
- Pax Silica – A – I (Correct)
Pax Silica is a United States-led strategic technology and economic security initiative that seeks to build trusted networks among partner countries in critical sectors. Its focus extends beyond semiconductors to include critical minerals, artificial intelligence infrastructure, advanced manufacturing, and other strategic technologies. The initiative aims to reduce vulnerabilities arising from geopolitical disruptions and ensure secure, resilient, and diversified supply chains. Therefore, matching it with a US-led strategic technology coalition (A) and the purpose of securing semiconductor, critical mineral, and AI supply chains (I) is correct.
- FORGE – B – II (Incorrect)
FORGE (Forum on Resource Geostrategic Engagement) was launched by U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio to strengthen cooperation among partner nations on critical minerals and resource security. While its objective is to protect sensitive supply chains from coercive market practices, overdependence on a single supplier, and strategic vulnerabilities, it is not a Quad-level platform.
- TRUST – C – III (Correct)
TRUST (Transforming the Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology) is a bilateral India–United States initiative designed to deepen cooperation in critical and emerging technologies. It seeks to develop resilient supply chains in semiconductors, advanced materials, critical minerals, and other high-technology sectors. Hence, the match C–III is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Pax Silica – A – I (Correct)
Pax Silica is a United States-led strategic technology and economic security initiative that seeks to build trusted networks among partner countries in critical sectors. Its focus extends beyond semiconductors to include critical minerals, artificial intelligence infrastructure, advanced manufacturing, and other strategic technologies. The initiative aims to reduce vulnerabilities arising from geopolitical disruptions and ensure secure, resilient, and diversified supply chains. Therefore, matching it with a US-led strategic technology coalition (A) and the purpose of securing semiconductor, critical mineral, and AI supply chains (I) is correct.
- FORGE – B – II (Incorrect)
FORGE (Forum on Resource Geostrategic Engagement) was launched by U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio to strengthen cooperation among partner nations on critical minerals and resource security. While its objective is to protect sensitive supply chains from coercive market practices, overdependence on a single supplier, and strategic vulnerabilities, it is not a Quad-level platform.
- TRUST – C – III (Correct)
TRUST (Transforming the Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology) is a bilateral India–United States initiative designed to deepen cooperation in critical and emerging technologies. It seeks to develop resilient supply chains in semiconductors, advanced materials, critical minerals, and other high-technology sectors. Hence, the match C–III is correct.
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