The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: The frequency of pre-monsoon dust storms traveling deep into the Indo-Gangetic plains from Northwest India has escalated significantly in recent years.
Statement II: The structural degradation and disappearance of multiple hillocks across the Aravalli range have created wide anthropogenic gaps that fail to intercept sediment-laden winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Project UDAYAK is a specialized territorial wing of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO). Although the BRO handles border infrastructure, it falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs, making statement 1 incorrect.
- The project is specifically tasked with developing and maintaining crucial road networks in remote, challenging terrains, managing over 1,457 km of strategic roads, making statement 2 correct.
- Its primary geographical jurisdiction encompasses sensitive border zones in the easternmost parts of Arunachal Pradesh—including districts like Anjaw, Lohit, Dibang Valley, Longding, Tirap, and Changlang—along with connected pockets in Assam, making statement 3 correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Project UDAYAK is a specialized territorial wing of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO). Although the BRO handles border infrastructure, it falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs, making statement 1 incorrect.
- The project is specifically tasked with developing and maintaining crucial road networks in remote, challenging terrains, managing over 1,457 km of strategic roads, making statement 2 correct.
- Its primary geographical jurisdiction encompasses sensitive border zones in the easternmost parts of Arunachal Pradesh—including districts like Anjaw, Lohit, Dibang Valley, Longding, Tirap, and Changlang—along with connected pockets in Assam, making statement 3 correct.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ‘MAHA Water Mission’:
- It is a high-priority national program aimed at bridging the gap between fundamental research and field deployment of water solutions.
- The mission is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministry of Jal Shakti, the Anusandhan National Research Foundation, and the Department of Space.
- The platform provides financial grants specifically targeting multidisciplinary consortia, startups, and MSMEs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The MAHA (Missions for Advancement in High-impact Areas) Water Mission is designed as a high-priority pathway for technology validation, development, and commercialization to bridge the gap between basic research and actual field deployment, making statement 1 correct.
- Structurally, it functions as a collaborative inter-ministerial platform pulling expertise from the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), the Ministry of Jal Shakti, and ISRO/Department of Space, making statement 2 correct.
Backed by a ₹200-crore outlay, it democratizes research funding by offering substantial financial grants to multidisciplinary consortia comprising universities, laboratories, startups, and MSMEs through dedicated open calls for prototype development, making statement 3 correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The MAHA (Missions for Advancement in High-impact Areas) Water Mission is designed as a high-priority pathway for technology validation, development, and commercialization to bridge the gap between basic research and actual field deployment, making statement 1 correct.
- Structurally, it functions as a collaborative inter-ministerial platform pulling expertise from the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), the Ministry of Jal Shakti, and ISRO/Department of Space, making statement 2 correct.
Backed by a ₹200-crore outlay, it democratizes research funding by offering substantial financial grants to multidisciplinary consortia comprising universities, laboratories, startups, and MSMEs through dedicated open calls for prototype development, making statement 3 correct.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the chemical process of ‘Coal Gasification’, consider the following statements:
- It is a process that converts coal or lignite directly into a liquid fuel mixture via high-pressure combustion.
- The primary gaseous components of the resulting syngas are carbon monoxide, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide.
- The reaction takes place in an oxygen-rich environment to ensure complete thermal cracking of solid elemental bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Coal gasification is a chemical process that breaks down and converts solid coal or lignite into a synthetic gaseous mixture (syngas) rather than directly liquefying it via traditional burning, making statement 1 incorrect.
- The elemental bonds are split under high temperature and pressure, yielding a clean mixture composed primarily of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), and carbon dioxide (CO2), making statement 2 correct.
- Crucially, the volume of oxygen injected into the gasification reactor is strictly controlled and restricted, ensuring that partial oxidation and thermal cracking occur instead of direct combustion or catching fire, making statement 3 incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Coal gasification is a chemical process that breaks down and converts solid coal or lignite into a synthetic gaseous mixture (syngas) rather than directly liquefying it via traditional burning, making statement 1 incorrect.
- The elemental bonds are split under high temperature and pressure, yielding a clean mixture composed primarily of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), and carbon dioxide (CO2), making statement 2 correct.
- Crucially, the volume of oxygen injected into the gasification reactor is strictly controlled and restricted, ensuring that partial oxidation and thermal cracking occur instead of direct combustion or catching fire, making statement 3 incorrect.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Centralized Digital Patient Feedback System, which organization launched this platform to gather instant public grievances across its hospitals?
Correct
Solution: A
The Centralized Digital Patient Feedback System is a nationwide public grievance and quality-assurance platform rolled out by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC). The system is designed to allow beneficiaries to quickly rate their healthcare experiences at ESIC hospitals and dispensaries, converting patient feedback into instant digital alerts so local administrative authorities can address operational deficiencies immediately.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Centralized Digital Patient Feedback System is a nationwide public grievance and quality-assurance platform rolled out by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC). The system is designed to allow beneficiaries to quickly rate their healthcare experiences at ESIC hospitals and dispensaries, converting patient feedback into instant digital alerts so local administrative authorities can address operational deficiencies immediately.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Pressurized Fluidized-Bed Gasification (PFBG) technology:
- It is specifically utilized to tackle the challenges of high-ash content characteristic of domestic Indian coal reserves.
- The technology keeps coal particles suspended using upward-blowing gas streams to ensure uniform gasification.
- It melts the heavy mineral ash content into molten slag to prevent it from clogging the reactor floor.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Indian coal typically has an exceptionally high ash content, often exceeding 40%. To handle this domestic constraint, Pressurized Fluidized-Bed Gasification (PFBG) is employed, making statement 1 correct.
- In this system, upward-blowing gas streams physically lift and suspend pulverized coal particles, creating a boiling fluid-like state that allows the heat to gasify the carbon uniformly, making statement 2 correct.
- However, a defining aspect of PFBG is that it allows the uniform extraction of heavy mineral ash from the bottom without melting it into slag, which differs from slagging gasifiers that liquefy ash, making statement 3 incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Indian coal typically has an exceptionally high ash content, often exceeding 40%. To handle this domestic constraint, Pressurized Fluidized-Bed Gasification (PFBG) is employed, making statement 1 correct.
- In this system, upward-blowing gas streams physically lift and suspend pulverized coal particles, creating a boiling fluid-like state that allows the heat to gasify the carbon uniformly, making statement 2 correct.
- However, a defining aspect of PFBG is that it allows the uniform extraction of heavy mineral ash from the bottom without melting it into slag, which differs from slagging gasifiers that liquefy ash, making statement 3 incorrect.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ (RTBF) in the Indian legal context, consider the following statements:
- It is explicitly recognized as a standalone, codified statutory right within the provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- The conceptual foundations of RTBF are rooted in the principle of informational self-determination.
- The Supreme Court’s landmark K.S. Puttaswamy judgment on the Right to Privacy paved the way for the recognition of RTBF.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Right to be Forgotten is not explicitly mentioned or codified as a standalone right within the Information Technology Act, 2000, making statement 1 incorrect (though the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, now provides a statutory basis via data erasure clauses).
- It is fundamentally based on the concept of informational self-determination, allowing individuals to control their digital footprints and request removal of personal data when public interest no longer outweighs private dignity, making statement 2 correct.
- Furthermore, the historic S. Puttaswamy verdict (2017), which declared privacy an integral fundamental right under Article 21, laid the structural framework for high courts to recognize RTBF, making statement 3 correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Right to be Forgotten is not explicitly mentioned or codified as a standalone right within the Information Technology Act, 2000, making statement 1 incorrect (though the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, now provides a statutory basis via data erasure clauses).
- It is fundamentally based on the concept of informational self-determination, allowing individuals to control their digital footprints and request removal of personal data when public interest no longer outweighs private dignity, making statement 2 correct.
- Furthermore, the historic S. Puttaswamy verdict (2017), which declared privacy an integral fundamental right under Article 21, laid the structural framework for high courts to recognize RTBF, making statement 3 correct.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Indian States:
- Uttarakhand
- Uttar Pradesh
- Bihar
- West Bengal
- Sikkim
The open international boundary between India and Nepal stretches across which of the states given above?
Correct
Solution: D
- The open international boundary between India and Nepal is approximately 1,850 km long and is shared across five distinct Indian states. These are Uttarakhand (which contains the contested Kalapani sector), Uttar Pradesh, Bihar (which contains the riverine Susta dispute along the Gandak), West Bengal, and Sikkim.
- Precise management of this boundary is vital for subcontinental security due to cross-border movements, farming overlaps, and territorial sensitivities. Therefore, all five states share a border with Nepal.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The open international boundary between India and Nepal is approximately 1,850 km long and is shared across five distinct Indian states. These are Uttarakhand (which contains the contested Kalapani sector), Uttar Pradesh, Bihar (which contains the riverine Susta dispute along the Gandak), West Bengal, and Sikkim.
- Precise management of this boundary is vital for subcontinental security due to cross-border movements, farming overlaps, and territorial sensitivities. Therefore, all five states share a border with Nepal.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following rivers is at the center of the riverine border dispute between India and Nepal in the Susta region?
Correct
Solution: C
The Susta region dispute, located along the border of Bihar and Nepal, is a direct result of the changing course of the Gandak River. Over several decades, the volatile nature of the river has caused it to shift its path, leaving chunks of land swinging between different physical jurisdictions. This has led to local cross-border farming overlaps and territorial disagreements, making the Gandak River the root geographic factor behind the Susta knot.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Susta region dispute, located along the border of Bihar and Nepal, is a direct result of the changing course of the Gandak River. Over several decades, the volatile nature of the river has caused it to shift its path, leaving chunks of land swinging between different physical jurisdictions. This has led to local cross-border farming overlaps and territorial disagreements, making the Gandak River the root geographic factor behind the Susta knot.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act, 2021:
- The upper gestation limit for terminating a pregnancy for general cases has been increased to 24 weeks.
- Termination of pregnancy due to contraceptive failure is now legally accessible to unmarried women and their partners.
- For pregnancies between 20 to 24 weeks, the opinion of at least two registered medical practitioners is mandatory.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021, significantly modernized India’s abortion laws to align with reproductive rights and medical advancements.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the upper gestation limit of 24 weeks applies only to special categories of women (rape survivors, minors, etc.), while for general cases, the limit remains 20 weeks.
- Statement 2 is correct and represents a major progressive shift; the original 1971 Act allowed termination due to contraceptive failure only for married women, but the 2021 amendment extended this to unmarried women, recognizing their autonomy.
Statement 3 is correct as the Act prescribes a tiered medical opinion system: one doctor’s opinion for up to 20 weeks, and two doctors’ opinions for the 20-24 week bracket. Furthermore, the Act mandates the creation of State-level Medical Boards to decide on terminations beyond 24 weeks in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities. These changes aim to reduce maternal mortality from unsafe abortions by providing a safe, legal, and confidential framework. The Act emphasizes confidentiality, ensuring that a woman’s identity is protected and only disclosed to persons authorized by law.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021, significantly modernized India’s abortion laws to align with reproductive rights and medical advancements.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the upper gestation limit of 24 weeks applies only to special categories of women (rape survivors, minors, etc.), while for general cases, the limit remains 20 weeks.
- Statement 2 is correct and represents a major progressive shift; the original 1971 Act allowed termination due to contraceptive failure only for married women, but the 2021 amendment extended this to unmarried women, recognizing their autonomy.
Statement 3 is correct as the Act prescribes a tiered medical opinion system: one doctor’s opinion for up to 20 weeks, and two doctors’ opinions for the 20-24 week bracket. Furthermore, the Act mandates the creation of State-level Medical Boards to decide on terminations beyond 24 weeks in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities. These changes aim to reduce maternal mortality from unsafe abortions by providing a safe, legal, and confidential framework. The Act emphasizes confidentiality, ensuring that a woman’s identity is protected and only disclosed to persons authorized by law.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a statutory document that derives its legal authority from the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Statement-II: The Election Commission of India exercises its constitutional powers under Article 324 to ensure the conduct of free and fair elections.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a statutory law; it was not passed by Parliament. Instead, it is a consensus-based document agreed upon by political parties. Its authority is derived from the Election Commission’s (EC) inherent constitutional powers under Article 324, which mandates the EC to superintend, direct, and control elections. Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect as it falsely attributes the MCC to a statute like the RPA, 1951.
- Statement-II is correct as it accurately identifies Article 324 as the source of the EC’s power. The MCC ensures a level playing field by preventing the party in power from misusing government machinery (like state aircraft or public media) for electoral gains. While the MCC lacks statutory backing, its violation can lead to various actions by the EC, including censure or naming-and-shaming, which carry significant political weight.
- The code has evolved since its origins in Kerala in 1960, with Part VII specifically added in 1979 to regulate the ‘Party in Power’. It becomes operational the moment the election schedule is announced.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a statutory law; it was not passed by Parliament. Instead, it is a consensus-based document agreed upon by political parties. Its authority is derived from the Election Commission’s (EC) inherent constitutional powers under Article 324, which mandates the EC to superintend, direct, and control elections. Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect as it falsely attributes the MCC to a statute like the RPA, 1951.
- Statement-II is correct as it accurately identifies Article 324 as the source of the EC’s power. The MCC ensures a level playing field by preventing the party in power from misusing government machinery (like state aircraft or public media) for electoral gains. While the MCC lacks statutory backing, its violation can lead to various actions by the EC, including censure or naming-and-shaming, which carry significant political weight.
- The code has evolved since its origins in Kerala in 1960, with Part VII specifically added in 1979 to regulate the ‘Party in Power’. It becomes operational the moment the election schedule is announced.
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