The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the mandate of the Justice Prakash Prabhakar Naolekar Committee:
- The committee originated from an official policy mandate declared by the Prime Minister during an Independence Day speech from the Red Fort.
- It is legally empowered to track migration patterns and review historical census variations up to the district and village levels.
- The committee focuses primarily on national averages of population growth rather than localized community alterations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct because the institutional framework of this high-level panel stems directly from an official policy declaration made by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day speech delivered from the ramparts of the Red Fort.
- Statement 2 is correct because the committee is granted a comprehensive scope of investigation, legally empowering it to gather empirical field data, track border-fringe migration corridors, and audit historical census logs down to micro-units like districts and villages.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the committee’s mandate explicitly shifts away from broad national averages. Instead, it focuses heavily on localized, rapid communitarian alterations and shifting patterns to spot clusters experiencing high rates of undocumented growth. This focus aims to safeguard tribal identities and prevent local resource conflicts.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct because the institutional framework of this high-level panel stems directly from an official policy declaration made by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day speech delivered from the ramparts of the Red Fort.
- Statement 2 is correct because the committee is granted a comprehensive scope of investigation, legally empowering it to gather empirical field data, track border-fringe migration corridors, and audit historical census logs down to micro-units like districts and villages.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the committee’s mandate explicitly shifts away from broad national averages. Instead, it focuses heavily on localized, rapid communitarian alterations and shifting patterns to spot clusters experiencing high rates of undocumented growth. This focus aims to safeguard tribal identities and prevent local resource conflicts.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsIn the context of modern biotechnology, consider the following statements regarding “CLEAR” technology:
- It is a highly multiplexed spatial protein imaging platform developed by the Indian Institute of Science.
- It allows a vast number of proteins to be visualized within the same cell or tissue section using a single fluorescent marker.
- It bypasses conventional limits by employing a cyclic erase and rewrite mechanism.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect because CLEAR technology was developed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), which is an autonomous institute operating under the Ministry of Science and Technology, not the Indian Institute of Science (IISc).
- Statement 2 is correct because the primary innovation of Cleavable Light-Erased Antibody Reporter (CLEAR) technology is its ability to map a massive library of distinct proteins inside a single sample using just a single fluorescent channel. This overcomes standard hardware constraints.
Statement 3 is correct because traditional methods are limited by the number of distinct color channels a microscope can view at once. CLEAR handles this by running a continuous cycle: labeling proteins, capturing images, photolytically erasing the signal, and introducing a new set of targets into the same spectral window.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect because CLEAR technology was developed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), which is an autonomous institute operating under the Ministry of Science and Technology, not the Indian Institute of Science (IISc).
- Statement 2 is correct because the primary innovation of Cleavable Light-Erased Antibody Reporter (CLEAR) technology is its ability to map a massive library of distinct proteins inside a single sample using just a single fluorescent channel. This overcomes standard hardware constraints.
Statement 3 is correct because traditional methods are limited by the number of distinct color channels a microscope can view at once. CLEAR handles this by running a continuous cycle: labeling proteins, capturing images, photolytically erasing the signal, and introducing a new set of targets into the same spectral window.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS):
- It is the oldest research institute in India and holds the distinction of being the first research facility in Asia established entirely by indigenous efforts.
- It was founded by Sir C.V. Raman to build local scientific capacity during the colonial era.
- The institute has been granted the status of a deemed-to-be university.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct because the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS), founded in Kolkata on July 29, 1876, is India’s premier historic research institution. It is celebrated as Asia’s first research facility established entirely by Indians to advance modern science.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because IACS was not founded by Sir C.V. Raman. It was established by Dr. Mahendralal Sircar, a visionary medical practitioner who sought to create local research opportunities when scientific infrastructure was non-existent under colonial rule. Sir C.V. Raman worked at IACS much later as a researcher, leading to his discovery of the Raman Effect there in 1928.
Statement 3 is correct because IACS operates as an autonomous research body funded by the Department of Science and Technology and has been recognized as a deemed-to-be university to award advanced research degrees.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct because the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS), founded in Kolkata on July 29, 1876, is India’s premier historic research institution. It is celebrated as Asia’s first research facility established entirely by Indians to advance modern science.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because IACS was not founded by Sir C.V. Raman. It was established by Dr. Mahendralal Sircar, a visionary medical practitioner who sought to create local research opportunities when scientific infrastructure was non-existent under colonial rule. Sir C.V. Raman worked at IACS much later as a researcher, leading to his discovery of the Raman Effect there in 1928.
Statement 3 is correct because IACS operates as an autonomous research body funded by the Department of Science and Technology and has been recognized as a deemed-to-be university to award advanced research degrees.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Quad Critical Minerals Initiative Framework:
- It is a multilateral strategic economic agreement signed by India, the United States, Japan, and New Zealand.
- Its primary goal is to build stable, diversified global supply routes for rare earth elements to counter vulnerabilities from China-dominated corridors.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the member nations of the Quad are India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. New Zealand is not a member of the Quad alliance or this critical minerals pact.
Statement 2 is correct because the main objective of the framework is to build highly diversified, resilient global supply routes for critical minerals and rare earths. This insulation targets geopolitical vulnerabilities arising from export caps and supply shocks linked to China’s dominant position in the market.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the member nations of the Quad are India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. New Zealand is not a member of the Quad alliance or this critical minerals pact.
Statement 2 is correct because the main objective of the framework is to build highly diversified, resilient global supply routes for critical minerals and rare earths. This insulation targets geopolitical vulnerabilities arising from export caps and supply shocks linked to China’s dominant position in the market.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following components of the PM-WANI (Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) architecture:
- Public Data Office (PDO) – Aggregates various retail nodes and manages user authorization and backend network security.
- Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) – Buys commercial bandwidth from telecom providers and directly establishes local Wi-Fi hotspots for consumers.
- Central Registry – Maintains the master directory of certified ecosystem application providers and operators to ensure system interoperability.
Which of the components listed above is/are correctly matched with their functional role?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrectly matched because the Public Data Office (PDO) is the retail last-mile service delivery node. It buys internet bandwidth from local telecom or internet service providers (TSPs/ISPs) and operates the physical Wi-Fi hotspots for users. It does not manage the aggregate backend or user authorization.
- Statement 2 is incorrectly matched because the Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) serves as the backend central management layer. Its role is to aggregate various PDOs and provide them with essential technical services like user authorization, accounting management, and security coordination, rather than setting up individual street-level hotspots itself. The descriptions for PDO and PDOA have been switched.
Statement 3 is correctly matched because the Central Registry maintains the master directory of all certified App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs to ensure cross-network interoperability. This database is currently managed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT). Therefore, only component 3 is correctly matched.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrectly matched because the Public Data Office (PDO) is the retail last-mile service delivery node. It buys internet bandwidth from local telecom or internet service providers (TSPs/ISPs) and operates the physical Wi-Fi hotspots for users. It does not manage the aggregate backend or user authorization.
- Statement 2 is incorrectly matched because the Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) serves as the backend central management layer. Its role is to aggregate various PDOs and provide them with essential technical services like user authorization, accounting management, and security coordination, rather than setting up individual street-level hotspots itself. The descriptions for PDO and PDOA have been switched.
Statement 3 is correctly matched because the Central Registry maintains the master directory of all certified App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs to ensure cross-network interoperability. This database is currently managed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT). Therefore, only component 3 is correctly matched.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Project Deepak:
- It is an initiative under the Ministry of Home Affairs to improve border surveillance using drone technology.
- The project is primarily responsible for the infrastructure of the Eastern Himalayas, including the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim.
- It was established following the Kargil War to create alternative routes to the LoC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect; Project Deepak is an executive wing of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), which operates under the Ministry of Defence, not Home Affairs. Its focus is physical infrastructure (roads, bridges), not just surveillance.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; its area of responsibility is the Western Himalayas, specifically Himachal Pradesh (Shimla, Lahaul-Spiti), not the Eastern Himalayas.
Statement 3 is incorrect; Project Deepak was raised in 1961, much earlier than the Kargil War (1999). It was part of the initial push to secure India’s northern borders following independence. Such projects are the lifeline for tribal populations in high-altitude zones, facilitating trade and tourism while serving the strategic needs of the Indian Armed Forces.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect; Project Deepak is an executive wing of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), which operates under the Ministry of Defence, not Home Affairs. Its focus is physical infrastructure (roads, bridges), not just surveillance.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; its area of responsibility is the Western Himalayas, specifically Himachal Pradesh (Shimla, Lahaul-Spiti), not the Eastern Himalayas.
Statement 3 is incorrect; Project Deepak was raised in 1961, much earlier than the Kargil War (1999). It was part of the initial push to secure India’s northern borders following independence. Such projects are the lifeline for tribal populations in high-altitude zones, facilitating trade and tourism while serving the strategic needs of the Indian Armed Forces.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsIn the context of the Apnoea Test for brain death, consider the following procedural steps:
- The patient is pre-oxygenated with 100% oxygen to provide a safety reserve.
- The mechanical ventilator is disconnected to allow the accumulation of Carbon Dioxide.
- The test is concluded if the patient shows any sign of spontaneous chest movement.
- The test must be aborted if the patient’s oxygen saturation falls below a critical threshold.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The apnoea test is a high-stakes clinical procedure.
- Statement 1 is correct; pre-oxygenation for about 10 minutes is essential to prevent hypoxia during the period when the patient is not being ventilated.
- Statement 2 is the core of the test: by disconnecting the ventilator, doctors allow CO2 to build up, which should stimulate the brain’s respiratory center.
- Statement 3 is correct because the moment a patient takes a breath, they are no longer brain-dead (the brainstem is functional), and the test is negative.
Statement 4 is a safety protocol; if the patient becomes hemodynamically unstable (e.g., blood pressure drops or oxygen falls below 85%), the test is stopped to prevent cardiac arrest. This rigorous protocol ensures that brain death is diagnosed with absolute certainty before any legal or medical actions, like organ retrieval, are initiated.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The apnoea test is a high-stakes clinical procedure.
- Statement 1 is correct; pre-oxygenation for about 10 minutes is essential to prevent hypoxia during the period when the patient is not being ventilated.
- Statement 2 is the core of the test: by disconnecting the ventilator, doctors allow CO2 to build up, which should stimulate the brain’s respiratory center.
- Statement 3 is correct because the moment a patient takes a breath, they are no longer brain-dead (the brainstem is functional), and the test is negative.
Statement 4 is a safety protocol; if the patient becomes hemodynamically unstable (e.g., blood pressure drops or oxygen falls below 85%), the test is stopped to prevent cardiac arrest. This rigorous protocol ensures that brain death is diagnosed with absolute certainty before any legal or medical actions, like organ retrieval, are initiated.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Mayon Volcano, consider the following statements:
- It is classified as a shield volcano due to its broad, low-profile shape formed by fluid lava flows.
- It is situated on the Philippine Sea Plate, which is being subducted under the Eurasian Plate.
- The volcano is part of the Bicol Volcanic Chain and is the most active volcano in its archipelago.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Mayon Volcano is not a shield volcano; it is a stratovolcano (composite volcano). It is globally famous for its near-perfect conical shape formed through alternating layers of lava, ash, and pyroclastic materials. Shield volcanoes, in contrast, have broad gentle slopes formed by highly fluid basaltic lava.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The tectonic setting is more complex than stated. The volcano is associated with subduction processes along the Philippine Trench, where the Philippine Sea Plate interacts with the Philippine Mobile Belt rather than simply being subducted beneath the Eurasian Plate in a straightforward manner.
Statement 3 is correct. Mayon Volcano is part of the Bicol Volcanic Chain in southeastern Luzon and is regarded as the most active volcano in the Philippines, having erupted numerous times in recorded history.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Mayon Volcano is not a shield volcano; it is a stratovolcano (composite volcano). It is globally famous for its near-perfect conical shape formed through alternating layers of lava, ash, and pyroclastic materials. Shield volcanoes, in contrast, have broad gentle slopes formed by highly fluid basaltic lava.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The tectonic setting is more complex than stated. The volcano is associated with subduction processes along the Philippine Trench, where the Philippine Sea Plate interacts with the Philippine Mobile Belt rather than simply being subducted beneath the Eurasian Plate in a straightforward manner.
Statement 3 is correct. Mayon Volcano is part of the Bicol Volcanic Chain in southeastern Luzon and is regarded as the most active volcano in the Philippines, having erupted numerous times in recorded history.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS):
Statement-I: Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) has a significantly higher mortality rate compared to the common seasonal flu.
Statement-II: There are currently no specific WHO-approved vaccines or antiviral treatments available for Hantavirus infections.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement-I is correct; HPS has a fatality rate of 38% to 40%, whereas the common flu usually has a mortality rate below 0.1%.
- Statement-II is also correct; medical science has not yet produced a specific antiviral or vaccine for Hantavirus; treatment is purely supportive (ventilators, fluid management).
However, Statement-II is not the reason why Statement-I is true. The high mortality rate (Statement-I) is due to the pathophysiology of the virus—it causes severe capillary leak in the lungs, leading to rapid respiratory failure and “drowning” from within. While the lack of a cure (Statement-II) makes managing the disease harder, the inherent deadliness is a result of how the virus attacks the human immune system and vascular structure. Early ICU admission is the only factor that significantly improves survival.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement-I is correct; HPS has a fatality rate of 38% to 40%, whereas the common flu usually has a mortality rate below 0.1%.
- Statement-II is also correct; medical science has not yet produced a specific antiviral or vaccine for Hantavirus; treatment is purely supportive (ventilators, fluid management).
However, Statement-II is not the reason why Statement-I is true. The high mortality rate (Statement-I) is due to the pathophysiology of the virus—it causes severe capillary leak in the lungs, leading to rapid respiratory failure and “drowning” from within. While the lack of a cure (Statement-II) makes managing the disease harder, the inherent deadliness is a result of how the virus attacks the human immune system and vascular structure. Early ICU admission is the only factor that significantly improves survival.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsRegarding the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:
- It comes into force immediately from the date the Election Commission announces the election schedule.
- It prohibits the government from announcing any new schemes or financial grants that could influence voters.
- Candidates are allowed to use religious places like temples or mosques for election propaganda, provided no communal hatred is spread.
- The MCC guidelines apply not only to candidates but also to the conduct of the polling agents on the day of the election.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- The MCC is designed to ensure a fair contest.
- Statement 1 is correct; the “date of announcement” is the trigger.
- Statement 2 is correct; the incumbent government is barred from making “populist” announcements once the MCC is active.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; the MCC strictly prohibits the use of places of worship for election propaganda or using religious symbols to solicit votes, as this is considered a violation of the secular electoral process.
Statement 4 is correct; the code covers the entire electoral ecosystem, including the behavior of polling agents to ensure no intimidation occurs within the vicinity of the polling station. The significance of the MCC lies in its moral authority, which is often more effective than statutory law due to the “naming and shaming” by the ECI.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The MCC is designed to ensure a fair contest.
- Statement 1 is correct; the “date of announcement” is the trigger.
- Statement 2 is correct; the incumbent government is barred from making “populist” announcements once the MCC is active.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; the MCC strictly prohibits the use of places of worship for election propaganda or using religious symbols to solicit votes, as this is considered a violation of the secular electoral process.
Statement 4 is correct; the code covers the entire electoral ecosystem, including the behavior of polling agents to ensure no intimidation occurs within the vicinity of the polling station. The significance of the MCC lies in its moral authority, which is often more effective than statutory law due to the “naming and shaming” by the ECI.
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