The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the operational guidelines of the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA):
- The scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented through a challenge-based competitive framework among States and Union Territories.
- Greenfield and eligible brownfield projects must possess a minimum contiguous land area of 100 acres in standard non-hilly states to be eligible.
- Every park layout map under the scheme must be layered onto the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan GIS platform.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect because BHAVYA is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. This means it receives 100% financial funding directly from the Central Government’s budget outlay of ₹33,660 crore. It is true, however, that the selection of the initial 50 parks utilizes a challenge-based competitive framework among states.
- Statement 2 is correct. The operational guidelines issued by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) establish strict land area benchmarks to ensure commercial and industrial viability. Projects must meet a minimum contiguous land target of 100 acres in standard non-hilly states, and 25 acres in hilly terrains, northeastern states, and smaller Union Territories.
- Statement 3 is correct. To optimize multi-modal freight logistics and ensure seamless integration with national connectivity grids, the guidelines mandate that every park layout map must be digitally layered onto the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan GIS platform. This ensures that roads, rail, and port connectivity are planned efficiently.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect because BHAVYA is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. This means it receives 100% financial funding directly from the Central Government’s budget outlay of ₹33,660 crore. It is true, however, that the selection of the initial 50 parks utilizes a challenge-based competitive framework among states.
- Statement 2 is correct. The operational guidelines issued by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) establish strict land area benchmarks to ensure commercial and industrial viability. Projects must meet a minimum contiguous land target of 100 acres in standard non-hilly states, and 25 acres in hilly terrains, northeastern states, and smaller Union Territories.
- Statement 3 is correct. To optimize multi-modal freight logistics and ensure seamless integration with national connectivity grids, the guidelines mandate that every park layout map must be digitally layered onto the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan GIS platform. This ensures that roads, rail, and port connectivity are planned efficiently.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Padma Awards:
Statement I: A recipient of a Padma Award can be considered for a higher tier of the award after a mandatory period of at least five years has elapsed since the conferment of the previous category.
Statement II: The Padma Awards Committee, which recommends names for final executive clearance, is an independent statutory body established under Article 18 of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. The operational guidelines of the Padma Awards dictate a strict five-year elapsing rule before a recipient can be upgraded to a higher tier (e.g., from Padma Shri to Padma Bhushan). This rule can only be relaxed by the committee under highly extraordinary circumstances.
- Statement II is incorrect. The Padma Awards Committee is not a statutory body, nor is it created under Article 18 of the Constitution. Article 18 actually abolishes titles and restricts the state from conferring titles, and the Supreme Court has ruled that these awards are decorations, not titles. The committee is constituted annually by the Prime Minister, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, and includes officials like the Home Secretary and eminent public personalities. It acts as an advisory panel rather than an independent statutory entity.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. The operational guidelines of the Padma Awards dictate a strict five-year elapsing rule before a recipient can be upgraded to a higher tier (e.g., from Padma Shri to Padma Bhushan). This rule can only be relaxed by the committee under highly extraordinary circumstances.
- Statement II is incorrect. The Padma Awards Committee is not a statutory body, nor is it created under Article 18 of the Constitution. Article 18 actually abolishes titles and restricts the state from conferring titles, and the Supreme Court has ruled that these awards are decorations, not titles. The committee is constituted annually by the Prime Minister, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, and includes officials like the Home Secretary and eminent public personalities. It acts as an advisory panel rather than an independent statutory entity.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Conocarpus plant, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is a hardy mangrove shrub native to the tropical shorelines of the Americas and West Africa.
- It possesses specialized salt glands at the base of its leaves to filter out excess salinity from brackish water ecosystems.
- Because of its deep roots and high water absorption capacity, it helps in recharging local water tables and stabilizing local soil microbial networks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. Conocarpus erectus (commonly known as Buttonwood) is a resilient mangrove shrub or tree belonging to the family Combretaceae, native to the tropical and subtropical environments of the Americas and West Africa.
- Statement 2 is correct. As an evolutionary adaptation to marine and coastal environments, its oblong leaves are equipped with two specialized salt glands located at the base, which allows the plant to filter out excess salinity and thrive in brackish water.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The plant actually causes severe groundwater depletion rather than recharging local water tables. Its aggressive root systems consume vast quantities of water, drying out nearby soils. Furthermore, it creates a green monoculture that suppresses native flora and disturbs the delicate soil microbial ecosystems, causing an ecological loss of biodiversity.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. Conocarpus erectus (commonly known as Buttonwood) is a resilient mangrove shrub or tree belonging to the family Combretaceae, native to the tropical and subtropical environments of the Americas and West Africa.
- Statement 2 is correct. As an evolutionary adaptation to marine and coastal environments, its oblong leaves are equipped with two specialized salt glands located at the base, which allows the plant to filter out excess salinity and thrive in brackish water.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The plant actually causes severe groundwater depletion rather than recharging local water tables. Its aggressive root systems consume vast quantities of water, drying out nearby soils. Furthermore, it creates a green monoculture that suppresses native flora and disturbs the delicate soil microbial ecosystems, causing an ecological loss of biodiversity.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsMatch the following protocols and legal cases with their primary subject matter:
Column I (Mechanism/Case) Column II (Primary Domain) A. B.E. F.A.S.T. Protocol 1. Anti-Terror Bail Jurisprudence B. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali Case 2. Clinical Emergency Assessment C. S.G. Vombatkere Case 3. Constitutional Abeyance of Sedition Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- E. F.A.S.T. Protocol (A-2): This is a critical medical assessment tool used globally to spot the sudden onset of a stroke. It stands for Balance, Eyes, Face, Arm, Speech, and Time, helping individuals quickly identify neurological deficits during clinical emergencies.
- Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali Case (B-1): In this ruling, the Supreme Court clarified the evidentiary standards for bail under Section 43D(5) of the UAPA, stating that courts must look at broad probabilities rather than performing a detailed examination of evidence at the bail stage.
- G. Vombatkere v. Union of India (C-3): This landmark 2022 Supreme Court judgment placed Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (Sedition Law) into complete constitutional abeyance, freezing all fresh FIRs, pending investigations, and ongoing trials across the country.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- E. F.A.S.T. Protocol (A-2): This is a critical medical assessment tool used globally to spot the sudden onset of a stroke. It stands for Balance, Eyes, Face, Arm, Speech, and Time, helping individuals quickly identify neurological deficits during clinical emergencies.
- Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali Case (B-1): In this ruling, the Supreme Court clarified the evidentiary standards for bail under Section 43D(5) of the UAPA, stating that courts must look at broad probabilities rather than performing a detailed examination of evidence at the bail stage.
- G. Vombatkere v. Union of India (C-3): This landmark 2022 Supreme Court judgment placed Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (Sedition Law) into complete constitutional abeyance, freezing all fresh FIRs, pending investigations, and ongoing trials across the country.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding clinical stroke types and time-sensitive treatment windows:
Statement I: Thrombolytic therapy utilizing Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) can be administered to patients suffering from both Ischemic and Hemorrhagic strokes within the golden window.
Statement II: Mechanical thrombectomy is a minimally invasive neuro-interventional procedure that physically extracts large blood clots from blocked cranial blood vessels.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement I is incorrect because thrombolytic therapy using Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) is a “clot-busting” medication that is strictly contraindicated for Hemorrhagic strokes. In a Hemorrhagic stroke, a blood vessel has ruptured and is actively bleeding into the brain; introducing a powerful blood thinner like tPA would cause catastrophic, fatal internal bleeding. It is highly effective, however, for Ischemic strokes if given within the 4.5-hour golden window.
- Statement II is correct. Mechanical thrombectomy is a specialized, minimally invasive procedure where a catheter is guided through the arterial system to physically grab and remove large obstructive clots from blocked brain vessels, restoring blood flow.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement I is incorrect because thrombolytic therapy using Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) is a “clot-busting” medication that is strictly contraindicated for Hemorrhagic strokes. In a Hemorrhagic stroke, a blood vessel has ruptured and is actively bleeding into the brain; introducing a powerful blood thinner like tPA would cause catastrophic, fatal internal bleeding. It is highly effective, however, for Ischemic strokes if given within the 4.5-hour golden window.
- Statement II is correct. Mechanical thrombectomy is a specialized, minimally invasive procedure where a catheter is guided through the arterial system to physically grab and remove large obstructive clots from blocked brain vessels, restoring blood flow.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the eligibility criteria and rules governing the Padma Awards:
- Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) employees and general government servants are restricted from receiving Padma Awards, except for scientists and doctors.
- The annual cap of 120 awards in a single year includes posthumous selections and honors given to non-resident Indians (NRIs).
- If an awardee uses the Padma Award as a prefix or suffix to their name in public or commercial spheres, the honor can be legally forfeited.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct. Government servants, including professionals working with Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), are generally not eligible for Padma Awards. However, the institutional framework explicitly provides a complete exemption for doctors and scientists, who remain eligible based on their clinical service or research advancements.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While there is a hard annual cap of 120 awards given in a single year, this numerical limit excludes posthumous awards and those presented to foreigners, NRIs, or Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs).
Statement 3 is correct. In line with Article 18 of the Constitution of India, these civilian awards are decorations and do not amount to noble titles. They cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. Any such commercial or public misuse can result in the forfeiture of the honor.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct. Government servants, including professionals working with Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), are generally not eligible for Padma Awards. However, the institutional framework explicitly provides a complete exemption for doctors and scientists, who remain eligible based on their clinical service or research advancements.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While there is a hard annual cap of 120 awards given in a single year, this numerical limit excludes posthumous awards and those presented to foreigners, NRIs, or Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs).
Statement 3 is correct. In line with Article 18 of the Constitution of India, these civilian awards are decorations and do not amount to noble titles. They cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. Any such commercial or public misuse can result in the forfeiture of the honor.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the administrative structure and components of the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA):
Statement I: The financial assistance provided under the BHAVYA scheme is routed to project-specific Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) as equity contributions tied directly to state land transfers and project milestones.
Statement II: The scheme features a comprehensive multi-tier infrastructure framework where funding is bifurcated exclusively into Core Infrastructure and Value-Added Industrial Infrastructure.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. To ensure robust financial accountability and institutional implementation, the BHAVYA scheme uses a Strict Corporate SPV Model under the Companies Act, 2013. The central government’s fiscal help is routed as equity contributions that are directly linked to state land transfers and specific project milestones.
- Statement II is incorrect. The funding framework under BHAVYA is divided into three functional pillars, not two. These are Core Infrastructure (internal roads, underground utility corridors, treatment plants), Value-Added Infrastructure (factory sheds, testing labs), and Social Infrastructure (on-site worker housing, healthcare centers, and skill-development facilities). Thus, the use of a dual classification is inaccurate.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. To ensure robust financial accountability and institutional implementation, the BHAVYA scheme uses a Strict Corporate SPV Model under the Companies Act, 2013. The central government’s fiscal help is routed as equity contributions that are directly linked to state land transfers and specific project milestones.
- Statement II is incorrect. The funding framework under BHAVYA is divided into three functional pillars, not two. These are Core Infrastructure (internal roads, underground utility corridors, treatment plants), Value-Added Infrastructure (factory sheds, testing labs), and Social Infrastructure (on-site worker housing, healthcare centers, and skill-development facilities). Thus, the use of a dual classification is inaccurate.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the geographic and ecological features of Hainan Province:
- Mount Wuzhi, located in the mountainous southwestern interior of the island, serves as the highest peak in Hainan.
- The coastal plains are drained and nourished by major river networks including the Nandu, Changhua, and Wanquan rivers.
- Due to its unique tropical monsoon climate and dense rainforests, the island serves as a critical habitat for the endangered Hainan black-crested gibbon.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct. The physical geography of Hainan features a rugged interior, with the southwestern part of the island being highly mountainous. Mount Wuzhi scales this central-southern highlands zone as the highest peak on the island.
- Statement 2 is correct. The fertile coastal plains that ring the island are shaped and sustained by a series of major river networks, specifically the Nandu River in the north, the Changhua River in the west, and the Wanquan River in the east.
Statement 3 is correct. Hainan experiences a tropical monsoon climate with hot, wet summers, which supports dense, rich rainforests. This isolated tropical ecosystem hosts rare, endemic species, including the critically endangered Hainan black-crested gibbon, making the island highly significant for global biodiversity conservation.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct. The physical geography of Hainan features a rugged interior, with the southwestern part of the island being highly mountainous. Mount Wuzhi scales this central-southern highlands zone as the highest peak on the island.
- Statement 2 is correct. The fertile coastal plains that ring the island are shaped and sustained by a series of major river networks, specifically the Nandu River in the north, the Changhua River in the west, and the Wanquan River in the east.
Statement 3 is correct. Hainan experiences a tropical monsoon climate with hot, wet summers, which supports dense, rich rainforests. This isolated tropical ecosystem hosts rare, endemic species, including the critically endangered Hainan black-crested gibbon, making the island highly significant for global biodiversity conservation.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the environmental and public health hazards of the Conocarpus erectus plant, consider the following statements:
- The tree is a prolific source of heavy pollen during winter, which acts as a major trigger for respiratory illnesses, asthma, and clinical allergies.
- The plant develops aggressive root systems that can penetrate pavements, damage underground telecom cables, and clog sewage lines.
- Its seed heads contain two-winged seeds that burst upon ripening, relying on high-velocity wind currents as their primary method of geographical dispersal.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct. Conocarpus has become an urgent public health concern because it releases heavy pollen clouds during the winter months. This pollen triggers respiratory issues, severe coughs, asthma attacks, and allergies in urban populations living near highway medians.
- Statement 2 is correct. From an infrastructural standpoint, the tree develops aggressive, invasive root systems. These roots seek out moisture, cracking pavements, fracturing water pipelines, disrupting telecom networks, and blocking local sewage systems.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. While the seed heads form cone-like structures containing two-winged seeds that burst open when ripe, the plant actually utilizes water currents (hydrochory), rather than wind, as its primary geographic dispersal mechanism. This is an evolutionary trait linked to its origin as a coastal mangrove shrub.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct. Conocarpus has become an urgent public health concern because it releases heavy pollen clouds during the winter months. This pollen triggers respiratory issues, severe coughs, asthma attacks, and allergies in urban populations living near highway medians.
- Statement 2 is correct. From an infrastructural standpoint, the tree develops aggressive, invasive root systems. These roots seek out moisture, cracking pavements, fracturing water pipelines, disrupting telecom networks, and blocking local sewage systems.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. While the seed heads form cone-like structures containing two-winged seeds that burst open when ripe, the plant actually utilizes water currents (hydrochory), rather than wind, as its primary geographic dispersal mechanism. This is an evolutionary trait linked to its origin as a coastal mangrove shrub.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the legal evolution of the Sedition Law (Section 124A) in India:
- Section 124A was integrated into the original 1860 Indian Penal Code drafted by Lord Macaulay.
- Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), the word “sedition” has been deleted and replaced with a provision targeting acts that endanger the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
- The minimum punishment for corresponding offenses under the BNS has been lowered compared to the colonial-era provision to avoid executive misuse.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 124A was not part of the original 1860 IPC drafted by Macaulay. It was introduced a decade later, in 1870, through an amendment drafted by Sir James Fitzjames Stephen to crack down on nationalist dissent.
- Statement 2 is correct. The BNS has officially dropped the word sedition from its text. The offense has been repackaged under Section 152 as “Acts endangering sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.”
Statement 3 is incorrect. The new legal framework under the BNS actually enhances the penalty rather than lowering it. The alternative minimum prison term has been raised from a three-year baseline under the old IPC to a strict minimum of seven years, stretching up to life imprisonment, making the penal provisions structurally more stringent.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 124A was not part of the original 1860 IPC drafted by Macaulay. It was introduced a decade later, in 1870, through an amendment drafted by Sir James Fitzjames Stephen to crack down on nationalist dissent.
- Statement 2 is correct. The BNS has officially dropped the word sedition from its text. The offense has been repackaged under Section 152 as “Acts endangering sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.”
Statement 3 is incorrect. The new legal framework under the BNS actually enhances the penalty rather than lowering it. The alternative minimum prison term has been raised from a three-year baseline under the old IPC to a strict minimum of seven years, stretching up to life imprisonment, making the penal provisions structurally more stringent.
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