The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the One Nation-One Port (ONOP) initiative, consider the following statements:
- It aims to standardize port documentation to reduce the paperwork required for container and bulk cargo operations.
- The initiative is aligned with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan.
- It introduces the ‘Sagar Ankalan’ index to benchmark the performance of Indian ports.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The One Nation–One Port (ONOP) initiative is a reform-oriented measure of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways aimed at enhancing efficiency, transparency, and competitiveness across Indian ports.
- Statement 1 is correct because ONOP focuses on standardizing port-related processes and documentation, such as port entry forms, cargo handling documents, and operating procedures, which significantly reduces paperwork, transaction costs, and delays for both containerized and bulk cargo.
- Statement 2 is also correct as ONOP is explicitly aligned with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, which seeks integrated and multimodal infrastructure planning; ports are treated as critical nodes linked with rail, road, inland waterways, and logistics parks.
- Statement 3 is correct because the initiative is complemented by the ‘Sagar Ankalan’ index, a comprehensive port performance benchmarking framework that evaluates ports on operational efficiency, business environment, and sustainability parameters.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The One Nation–One Port (ONOP) initiative is a reform-oriented measure of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways aimed at enhancing efficiency, transparency, and competitiveness across Indian ports.
- Statement 1 is correct because ONOP focuses on standardizing port-related processes and documentation, such as port entry forms, cargo handling documents, and operating procedures, which significantly reduces paperwork, transaction costs, and delays for both containerized and bulk cargo.
- Statement 2 is also correct as ONOP is explicitly aligned with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, which seeks integrated and multimodal infrastructure planning; ports are treated as critical nodes linked with rail, road, inland waterways, and logistics parks.
- Statement 3 is correct because the initiative is complemented by the ‘Sagar Ankalan’ index, a comprehensive port performance benchmarking framework that evaluates ports on operational efficiency, business environment, and sustainability parameters.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ex-Gratia vs Compensation:
- Ex-gratia is a legal obligation defined under specific laws, whereas compensation is voluntary.
- Compensation is usually decided by courts or through specific statutes.
- Ex-gratia is primarily intended for immediate relief, whereas compensation covers the loss or damage incurred.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Ex-gratia payments are not legal obligations; they are discretionary payments made by the government or an authority as a gesture of goodwill, sympathy, or immediate support, without any admission of legal liability. Compensation, on the other hand, generally arises from a legal right and is not voluntary in nature.
- Statement 2 is correct. Compensation is typically determined either through judicial processes—such as court judgments, tribunals, or consumer forums—or under specific statutory frameworks like land acquisition laws, labour laws, or motor vehicle accident statutes, which lay down principles and formulas for assessment.
- Statement 3 is correct. Ex-gratia payments are meant to provide quick, interim relief, especially in cases of disasters, accidents, or deaths, to address immediate needs. Compensation aims at restitution by monetarily addressing the actual loss, damage, or injury suffered, often after a detailed assessment.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Ex-gratia payments are not legal obligations; they are discretionary payments made by the government or an authority as a gesture of goodwill, sympathy, or immediate support, without any admission of legal liability. Compensation, on the other hand, generally arises from a legal right and is not voluntary in nature.
- Statement 2 is correct. Compensation is typically determined either through judicial processes—such as court judgments, tribunals, or consumer forums—or under specific statutory frameworks like land acquisition laws, labour laws, or motor vehicle accident statutes, which lay down principles and formulas for assessment.
- Statement 3 is correct. Ex-gratia payments are meant to provide quick, interim relief, especially in cases of disasters, accidents, or deaths, to address immediate needs. Compensation aims at restitution by monetarily addressing the actual loss, damage, or injury suffered, often after a detailed assessment.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsMatch the following components of the PM-AASHA scheme (Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan) with their features:
Component Feature 1. Price Support Scheme (PSS) (i) Direct compensation for price difference without procurement 2. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) (ii) Physical procurement of pulses/oilseeds at MSP 3. Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) (iii) Maintaining buffer stocks of onions/pulses to curb inflation Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- PM-AASHA is a farmer-income support scheme launched by the Government of India to ensure that farmers receive remunerative prices for their agricultural produce when market prices fall below the Minimum Support Price (MSP).
- Important Features
- Covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra (not all MSP crops)
- Operates in price-deficiency mode as well as procurement mode
- Requires State government participation and approval
- Aligns with the broader goal of doubling farmers’ income and market reforms
- The Price Support Scheme (PSS) is the most traditional tool, where the government (via NAFED) acts as the “buyer of last resort” to prevent prices from crashing during a bumper harvest.
- The Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) is a more modern, market-friendly approach; it doesn’t distort market prices through government buying but instead gives the farmer a “top-up” payment if they sell their crop in the open market for less than the MSP. This is currently used for oilseeds, where private trade is very active.
- The Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) serves a different purpose: it’s a tool for inflation management. By keeping a buffer stock of essential items like pulses and onions, the government can “release” these into the market when prices spike, preventing hoarding and ensuring that consumers have access to affordable food.
- Together with the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for perishables, these components allow the Ministry of Agriculture to tackle different market failures with the most appropriate tool. Whether it’s the physical lack of buyers (PSS), a price gap in a functioning market (PDPS), or a supply-side shock causing inflation (PSF), PM-AASHA provides a versatile framework to stabilize the agricultural economy and protect both the producer and the consumer.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- PM-AASHA is a farmer-income support scheme launched by the Government of India to ensure that farmers receive remunerative prices for their agricultural produce when market prices fall below the Minimum Support Price (MSP).
- Important Features
- Covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra (not all MSP crops)
- Operates in price-deficiency mode as well as procurement mode
- Requires State government participation and approval
- Aligns with the broader goal of doubling farmers’ income and market reforms
- The Price Support Scheme (PSS) is the most traditional tool, where the government (via NAFED) acts as the “buyer of last resort” to prevent prices from crashing during a bumper harvest.
- The Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) is a more modern, market-friendly approach; it doesn’t distort market prices through government buying but instead gives the farmer a “top-up” payment if they sell their crop in the open market for less than the MSP. This is currently used for oilseeds, where private trade is very active.
- The Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) serves a different purpose: it’s a tool for inflation management. By keeping a buffer stock of essential items like pulses and onions, the government can “release” these into the market when prices spike, preventing hoarding and ensuring that consumers have access to affordable food.
- Together with the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for perishables, these components allow the Ministry of Agriculture to tackle different market failures with the most appropriate tool. Whether it’s the physical lack of buyers (PSS), a price gap in a functioning market (PDPS), or a supply-side shock causing inflation (PSF), PM-AASHA provides a versatile framework to stabilize the agricultural economy and protect both the producer and the consumer.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsMount Fentale, reported to be associated with large methane emissions, is located in which country?
Correct
Solution: B
- Mount Fentale is located in Ethiopia, within the Main Ethiopian Rift, a geologically active segment of the East African Rift System. Recent satellite-based studies have detected unusually large methane emissions from the region surrounding Mount Fentale, drawing global scientific attention.
- These emissions are significant because methane is a potent greenhouse gas with a much higher short-term warming potential than carbon dioxide. The source of methane in this region is believed to be linked to a combination of volcanic, geothermal, and tectonic processes, including deep crustal faults that allow gases trapped underground to escape to the surface.
- The finding challenges the conventional assumption that large methane plumes are primarily associated with fossil fuel extraction and wetlands, highlighting that natural geological sources can also contribute substantially to atmospheric methane budgets. This has important implications for climate modelling, greenhouse gas inventories, and the understanding of rift-related volcanism.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Mount Fentale is located in Ethiopia, within the Main Ethiopian Rift, a geologically active segment of the East African Rift System. Recent satellite-based studies have detected unusually large methane emissions from the region surrounding Mount Fentale, drawing global scientific attention.
- These emissions are significant because methane is a potent greenhouse gas with a much higher short-term warming potential than carbon dioxide. The source of methane in this region is believed to be linked to a combination of volcanic, geothermal, and tectonic processes, including deep crustal faults that allow gases trapped underground to escape to the surface.
- The finding challenges the conventional assumption that large methane plumes are primarily associated with fossil fuel extraction and wetlands, highlighting that natural geological sources can also contribute substantially to atmospheric methane budgets. This has important implications for climate modelling, greenhouse gas inventories, and the understanding of rift-related volcanism.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Munda Tribe, consider the following statements:
- They are primarily concentrated in the Chotanagpur Plateau region.
- The tribe has a historical legacy of resisting British rule, notably under the leadership of Birsa Munda.
- They practice a form of animism and worship nature in sacred groves.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Munda Tribe is one of the largest and most historically significant Scheduled Tribes in India. Their primary habitat is the Chotanagpur Plateau, which spans Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar. They have a rich cultural identity characterized by a patrilineal clan system (Killi) and a deep spiritual connection to nature.
- They practice animism, believing that spirits reside in natural elements, and they perform rituals in sacred groves.
- Recently, the Munda tribals in the Similipal Tiger Reserve made news due to protests regarding access to these sacred sites.
- Historically, the tribe is famous for its resistance against colonial exploitation. The Ulgulan (Great Tumult) led by Birsa Munda in the late 19th century sought to establish Munda Raj and protect tribal land rights from British officials and middlemen.
- This legacy of self-determination remains a core part of their identity. Their language is part of the Austroasiatic family, suggesting ancient migrations from Southeast Asia nearly 4,000 years ago.
- Today, while many have transitioned from hunter-gatherers to settled farmers, they maintain traditional skills in weaving and basket-making, and celebrate festivals like Sarhul and Karam.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Munda Tribe is one of the largest and most historically significant Scheduled Tribes in India. Their primary habitat is the Chotanagpur Plateau, which spans Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar. They have a rich cultural identity characterized by a patrilineal clan system (Killi) and a deep spiritual connection to nature.
- They practice animism, believing that spirits reside in natural elements, and they perform rituals in sacred groves.
- Recently, the Munda tribals in the Similipal Tiger Reserve made news due to protests regarding access to these sacred sites.
- Historically, the tribe is famous for its resistance against colonial exploitation. The Ulgulan (Great Tumult) led by Birsa Munda in the late 19th century sought to establish Munda Raj and protect tribal land rights from British officials and middlemen.
- This legacy of self-determination remains a core part of their identity. Their language is part of the Austroasiatic family, suggesting ancient migrations from Southeast Asia nearly 4,000 years ago.
- Today, while many have transitioned from hunter-gatherers to settled farmers, they maintain traditional skills in weaving and basket-making, and celebrate festivals like Sarhul and Karam.
- The Technology Adoption Fund (TAF) is a strategic move by IN-SPACe (the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre) to bridge the gap between a “working prototype” and a “market-ready product.”
- Statement 1 is correct; it targets Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs), including startups and MSMEs, to help them commercialize technologies like small satellites or propulsion systems.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. To ensure that the private sector also has “skin in the game,” the fund does not cover the entire cost. It provides up to 60% of project costs for startups and MSMEs, and up to 40% for larger industries, with a cap of Rs 25 crore per project.
- Statement 3 is correct. By providing this financial cushion, the government aims to create a robust domestic space ecosystem, moving away from being just a “service provider” to a “technology hub.” This reduces dependency on foreign components, which is critical for national security and economic growth. IN-SPACe acts as the single-window interface between ISRO and these private players, allowing them to use ISRO’s world-class testing facilities and infrastructure.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsRegarding the eligibility criteria for a wetland to be designated as a Ramsar Site, consider the following statements:
- A wetland must host at least 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
- It must be a site that regularly supports 50,000 or more waterbirds.
- It must support a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies or families that are representative of wetland benefits.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Ramsar Convention uses nine specific criteria to identify wetlands of international importance.
- Statement 1 is correct. Under Criterion 6, a wetland is considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Criterion 5 states that a wetland should regularly support 20,000 or more waterbirds, not 50,000. This is a common threshold used to identify sites like Khichan or Menar which host large flocks of migratory birds.
- Statement 3 is correct. Criterion 7 focuses on fish biodiversity, stating that a site is important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species, or families that are representative of wetland benefits and values.
- Other criteria include supporting vulnerable or endangered species (Criterion 2), maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region (Criterion 3), and supporting species at a critical stage in their life cycles, such as during migration or breeding (Criterion 4).
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Ramsar Convention uses nine specific criteria to identify wetlands of international importance.
- Statement 1 is correct. Under Criterion 6, a wetland is considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Criterion 5 states that a wetland should regularly support 20,000 or more waterbirds, not 50,000. This is a common threshold used to identify sites like Khichan or Menar which host large flocks of migratory birds.
- Statement 3 is correct. Criterion 7 focuses on fish biodiversity, stating that a site is important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species, or families that are representative of wetland benefits and values.
- Other criteria include supporting vulnerable or endangered species (Criterion 2), maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region (Criterion 3), and supporting species at a critical stage in their life cycles, such as during migration or breeding (Criterion 4).
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the applications of thermophilic bacteria:
- They are used in the production of biofuels due to enzymes that remain active at high temperatures.
- They play a role in agriculture by enhancing soil fertility under harsh environmental conditions.
- Their DNA repair systems make them resilient to high levels of radiation and environmental stress.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Thermophilic bacteria are microorganisms that thrive at high temperatures, typically between 45°C and 80°C. The term thermophilic literally means “heat-loving.”
They are commonly found in:
- Hot springs
- Geothermal soils
- Compost heaps
- Deep-sea hydrothermal vents
- Industrial high-temperature environments
- Statement 1 is correct: In the biofuel industry, fermentation and breakdown of plant matter often require heat. Thermophilic enzymes can function efficiently at these temperatures, speeding up chemical reactions and reducing the risk of contamination by common bacteria that cannot survive the heat.
- Statement 2 is correct: Certain thermophilic microbial blends are used in agriculture to promote growth. These bacteria can survive in hot, arid soils and help in the cycling of nutrients, thereby improving soil fertility and the resilience of crops against climate-induced heat stress.
- Statement 3 is correct: To survive in extreme environments like hot springs or hydrothermal vents, thermophiles have evolved robust DNA repair systems and stable proteins. These features protect them not only from heat but often from other stressors like radiation and toxic minerals.
- Furthermore, the medical application of these bacteria is expanding. By synthesizing rare bioactive molecules, they provide a new frontier for developing antibiotics. Because these bacteria live in isolated, extreme niches, the compounds they produce are often structurally different from those found in common soil bacteria, making them effective against multi-drug resistant pathogens.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Thermophilic bacteria are microorganisms that thrive at high temperatures, typically between 45°C and 80°C. The term thermophilic literally means “heat-loving.”
They are commonly found in:
- Hot springs
- Geothermal soils
- Compost heaps
- Deep-sea hydrothermal vents
- Industrial high-temperature environments
- Statement 1 is correct: In the biofuel industry, fermentation and breakdown of plant matter often require heat. Thermophilic enzymes can function efficiently at these temperatures, speeding up chemical reactions and reducing the risk of contamination by common bacteria that cannot survive the heat.
- Statement 2 is correct: Certain thermophilic microbial blends are used in agriculture to promote growth. These bacteria can survive in hot, arid soils and help in the cycling of nutrients, thereby improving soil fertility and the resilience of crops against climate-induced heat stress.
- Statement 3 is correct: To survive in extreme environments like hot springs or hydrothermal vents, thermophiles have evolved robust DNA repair systems and stable proteins. These features protect them not only from heat but often from other stressors like radiation and toxic minerals.
- Furthermore, the medical application of these bacteria is expanding. By synthesizing rare bioactive molecules, they provide a new frontier for developing antibiotics. Because these bacteria live in isolated, extreme niches, the compounds they produce are often structurally different from those found in common soil bacteria, making them effective against multi-drug resistant pathogens.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the functions of Group of Seven (G7) countries, which of the following are the key areas of focus?
- Macroeconomic coordination to stabilize markets and reduce inflation.
- Driving global action on AI regulation and cybersecurity threats.
- Promoting liberal democratic values and gender equity.
- Setting mandatory military spending targets for all partner countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- The Group of Seven (G7) is an informal grouping of seven advanced industrial democracies that meet annually to discuss global economic stability, geopolitics, climate change, energy security, and development cooperation.
- Member Countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, United Kingdom and United States. Additionally, the European Union participates but is not counted as one of the seven.
- Russia joined in 1998, creating the G8. In 2014, following the annexation of Crimea, Russia was suspended, reverting the group to G7.
- Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The group was founded for macroeconomic coordination (Point 1), and it continues to signal policy shifts to stabilize global markets and address inflation. In the modern era, it has expanded its agenda to include AI regulation, cybersecurity, and public health emergencies (Point 2).
- Furthermore, as a group of democracies, it actively promotes liberal values, gender equity, and sustainable development (Point 3).
- However, Statement 4 is incorrect; the G7 is an informal group, not a military treaty organization like NATO. It does not set mandatory military spending targets for its members or partners.
- Its influence is “normative” rather than “coercive,” meaning it uses joint communiqués to signal global policy directions and donor priorities. For example, it acts as a platform for aligning donor strategies for the Global South.
- By engaging with developing nations—as seen with India’s frequent invitations—the G7 seeks to build a consensus on global challenges without the rigid structure of a permanent secretariat or binding legal treaties. This makes its role as a policy signaling body highly influential in international relations.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The Group of Seven (G7) is an informal grouping of seven advanced industrial democracies that meet annually to discuss global economic stability, geopolitics, climate change, energy security, and development cooperation.
- Member Countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, United Kingdom and United States. Additionally, the European Union participates but is not counted as one of the seven.
- Russia joined in 1998, creating the G8. In 2014, following the annexation of Crimea, Russia was suspended, reverting the group to G7.
- Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The group was founded for macroeconomic coordination (Point 1), and it continues to signal policy shifts to stabilize global markets and address inflation. In the modern era, it has expanded its agenda to include AI regulation, cybersecurity, and public health emergencies (Point 2).
- Furthermore, as a group of democracies, it actively promotes liberal values, gender equity, and sustainable development (Point 3).
- However, Statement 4 is incorrect; the G7 is an informal group, not a military treaty organization like NATO. It does not set mandatory military spending targets for its members or partners.
- Its influence is “normative” rather than “coercive,” meaning it uses joint communiqués to signal global policy directions and donor priorities. For example, it acts as a platform for aligning donor strategies for the Global South.
- By engaging with developing nations—as seen with India’s frequent invitations—the G7 seeks to build a consensus on global challenges without the rigid structure of a permanent secretariat or binding legal treaties. This makes its role as a policy signaling body highly influential in international relations.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) operates as a global partnership rather than an intergovernmental treaty-based organization.
Statement-II: Membership in the CDRI does not entail any mandatory financial obligations or legal commitments for the participating countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), launched by India at the 2019 UN Climate Action Summit, is structured as a multilateral platform and a global partnership. Unlike traditional UN bodies or treaty-based organizations (like the WTO), it functions as a voluntary coalition of national governments, UN agencies, and private sectors. This flexibility is a core design feature to encourage inclusive participation without the bureaucratic hurdles of formal treaties.
- While Statement-II is correct—the CDRI is funded through voluntary contributions and members face no mandatory financial commitments—it does not directly explain why the organization is classified as a partnership. Its status as a partnership is defined by its foundational charter and its objective to act as a knowledge exchange hub rather than a regulatory body. India remains the primary funder, supported by other developed nations like the USA and UK.
- The absence of mandatory fees is a characteristic of its voluntary nature, but its organizational identity (Statement-I) is rooted in its functional goal of mobilizing global expertise across 46 member countries to ensure that infrastructure built today is resilient to the climate risks of 2050.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), launched by India at the 2019 UN Climate Action Summit, is structured as a multilateral platform and a global partnership. Unlike traditional UN bodies or treaty-based organizations (like the WTO), it functions as a voluntary coalition of national governments, UN agencies, and private sectors. This flexibility is a core design feature to encourage inclusive participation without the bureaucratic hurdles of formal treaties.
- While Statement-II is correct—the CDRI is funded through voluntary contributions and members face no mandatory financial commitments—it does not directly explain why the organization is classified as a partnership. Its status as a partnership is defined by its foundational charter and its objective to act as a knowledge exchange hub rather than a regulatory body. India remains the primary funder, supported by other developed nations like the USA and UK.
- The absence of mandatory fees is a characteristic of its voluntary nature, but its organizational identity (Statement-I) is rooted in its functional goal of mobilizing global expertise across 46 member countries to ensure that infrastructure built today is resilient to the climate risks of 2050.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsMatch the following digital initiatives with its primary aim:
Column A: Initiative Column B: Primary Aim 1. Depot Darpan A. Empower field-level PDS stakeholders with real-time data access. 2. Anna Mitra B. Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PM-GKAY beneficiaries. 3. Anna Sahayata C. Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI & CWC. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has unveiled three tech-driven initiatives to modernize warehousing, empower frontline workers, and improve grievance redressal under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY) and National Food Security Act (NFSA).
- Depot Darpan Initiative aims to improve the infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC). It involves a digital self-assessment portal for performance tracking, composite ratings based on operations and infrastructure (60:40 ratio), IoT integration for real-time monitoring, and significant capital infusion for upgrades. So, 1 matches with C.
- Anna Mitra Initiative aims to empower field-level Public Distribution System (PDS) stakeholders such as Fair Price Shop (FPS) dealers, District Food and Supplies Officer (DFSO) officers, and food inspectors through real-time data access. It is a mobile app providing stock details, sales reports, alerts, and enabling geo-tagged inspections. So, 2 matches with A.
- Anna Sahayata Initiative aims to provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY) beneficiaries. It utilizes WhatsApp, Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS), and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints, focusing on accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach. So, 3 matches with B.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has unveiled three tech-driven initiatives to modernize warehousing, empower frontline workers, and improve grievance redressal under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY) and National Food Security Act (NFSA).
- Depot Darpan Initiative aims to improve the infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC). It involves a digital self-assessment portal for performance tracking, composite ratings based on operations and infrastructure (60:40 ratio), IoT integration for real-time monitoring, and significant capital infusion for upgrades. So, 1 matches with C.
- Anna Mitra Initiative aims to empower field-level Public Distribution System (PDS) stakeholders such as Fair Price Shop (FPS) dealers, District Food and Supplies Officer (DFSO) officers, and food inspectors through real-time data access. It is a mobile app providing stock details, sales reports, alerts, and enabling geo-tagged inspections. So, 2 matches with A.
- Anna Sahayata Initiative aims to provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY) beneficiaries. It utilizes WhatsApp, Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS), and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints, focusing on accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach. So, 3 matches with B.
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