DAY – 70 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : Polity Full Syllabus

Answer: (b)

Explanation

Democracy is broadly classified into two types: Direct and Indirect (Representative). In a Direct Democracy, citizens participate directly in the decision-making process of the government rather than exercising their power through elected representatives (as seen in Switzerland).

There are four classic instruments or devices used to exercise direct democracy:

1. Referendum (1): A procedure whereby a piece of legislation proposed by the legislature is referred to the electorate for their direct vote or approval.
2. Citizen’s Initiative (2): A method by means of which the citizens themselves can propose a bill or a piece of legislation to the legislature for enactment.
3. Recall (3): A device by which the voters can remove an elected official or an officer from office before the expiry of their term if they fail to discharge their duties satisfactorily.
4. Plebiscite (4): A method of obtaining the opinion of the public on a matter of great public or political importance (such as a territorial dispute or choosing independence).

• Point 5 is incorrect: A No-confidence Motion is a parliamentary device used in an Indirect (Representative) Democracy. It is a tool exercised by the elected legislators within the parliament/assembly to test whether the executive (Council of Ministers) still enjoys the majority support of the house. The general public does not vote on it directly.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

The concept of ‘Principled Distance’ is a defining feature of Indian Secularism, differentiating it significantly from Western models of secularism. Coined by political theorist Rajeev Bhargava, it describes the specific nature of the separation between religion and state in India.

• Statement (c) is correct: Under the Indian constitutional framework, the state does not maintain a strict, absolute wall of separation from religion (as seen in the American or French models, where the state is completely blind to religion). Instead, the state maintains a “principled distance.” This means:
  • The state can intervene in religious matters to remove social evils, promote equality, and protect fundamental rights (e.g., banning Untouchability under Article 17, outlawing Triple Talaq, or regulating temple management).
  • Conversely, the state can actively support religions on a non-discriminatory basis (e.g., providing subsidies for pilgrimages of various communities, or granting financial aid to educational institutions run by minorities under Article 30).
  • The intervention or abstention of the state is always guided by principles of justice, liberty, and equality.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is a landmark milestone in the constitutional and legislative history of India. It initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, which had been stripped away by the Charter Act of 1833.

As part of this decentralization and expansion of the legislative machinery, the Act also provided for the establishment of new Legislative Councils for other provinces to better manage regional administration. Under these provisions, councils were established in:

1. Bengal (established in 1862)
2. North-Western Provinces (established in 1886)
3. Punjab (established in 1897)

Answer: (b)

Explanation

Article 20 of the Constitution of India, provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not completely prohibit the Parliament and State Legislatures from making retrospective laws. This prohibition is strictly limited to criminal laws (ex-post facto laws) under Article 20(1). The legislatures are entirely free to enact retrospective civil laws or tax laws (e.g., retrospective taxation is legally permissible in India).
• Statement 2 is correct: This reflects the first part of Article 20(1) regarding Ex-Post Facto Laws. It explicitly states that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.
• Statement 3 is correct: This reflects Article 20(2), which embodies the doctrine of Double Jeopardy. It mandates that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

Cooperative societies in India are governed by specific constitutional provisions introduced and modified over time to encourage democratic functioning and autonomous management.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Cooperative societies are a state subject, not a concurrent one. “Cooperative Societies” is explicitly listed under Entry 32 of the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. Therefore, state legislatures have the primary power to enact laws regarding them. (Note: Multi-State Cooperative Societies, which operate in more than one state, fall under Entry 44 of the Union List).
• Statement 2 is correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 amended Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution to explicitly include the words “or co-operative societies” after “associations or unions”. This elevated the right to form cooperative societies to the status of a Fundamental Right.

Statement 3 is correct: The same 97th Amendment also inserted a new Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSO) under Article 43B, which mandates that the State shall endeavor to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A, Article 51A) are non-justiciable in nature. This means they are not directly enforceable by courts through writs in the event of their non-compliance or violation. However, the Constitution does not prevent the Parliament from enacting specific statutory laws to enforce these duties.
  • For instance, the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 enforces the duty to respect the National Flag and Anthem, and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 enforces the duty to protect the natural environment.
• Statement 2 is correct: This reflects the structural relationship between Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) and Fundamental Rights, specifically established by the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, which inserted Article 31C. It explicitly states that no law which seeks to implement the socialist principles specified in Article 39(b) (distribution of material resources for common good) and Article 39(c) (prevention of concentration of wealth) can be declared void on the grounds that it abridges or violates the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 14 (Equality before law) or Article 19 (Six freedoms). The Supreme Court upheld this specific provision in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The Committee of Parliament on Official Language is a statutory committee that plays a critical role in reviewing the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union.

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 344(4) of the Constitution of India explicitly provides for the constitution of a Committee consisting of 30 members of Parliament to examine the recommendations of the Official Language Commission and report their views to the President. (Note: While the committee is constituted under the constitutional provision of Article 344, its functional modalities are guided by Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963).
• Statement 2 is correct: The committee is unique because it consists only of members from both Houses of Parliament. It has a total of 30 members—20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. They are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. No outside experts or ministers who are not MPs can be part of this committee.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: By long-standing convention and practice, the Committee of Parliament on Official Language is chaired and headed by the Union Home Minister, not the Prime Minister of India.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 200 of the Constitution, reserving a bill for the consideration of the President is generally a matter of discretion for the Governor. However, there is one scenario where reservation is obligatory/mandatory. If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the constitutional position of the State High Court by derogating from its powers, the Governor must (shall) reserve it for the President’s consideration.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: If a Bill is returned by the Governor to the houses for reconsideration, and the State Legislature passes the Bill again—either with or without the amendments suggested by the Governor—and presents it back, the Governor is constitutionally bound to give assent. The proviso to Article 200 explicitly states that the Governor “shall not withhold assent therefrom.” The Supreme Court reinforced this position in State of Punjab v. Principal Secretary (2023), clarifying that a Governor cannot use the veto power indefinitely to stall a bill that has been repassed by the legislature.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

Under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Remission implies reducing the quantum or period of the sentence without altering its fundamental character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Respite means awarding a lesser sentence in place of the one originally awarded due to some special, objective fact or circumstance of the convict. Classic examples include the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Reprieve implies a temporary stay on the execution of a sentence (especially a death sentence) for a temporary period. Its primary purpose is to afford the convict sufficient time to seek a full pardon or commutation from the President.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The Constitution of India makes special provisions for the administration and governance of tribal-dominated areas to protect their unique culture, customs, and economic interests from exploitation.

• Fifth Schedule (1): Deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state except the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It provides for the creation of Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) and grants special powers to the Governor regarding land transfers and the application of central/state laws. Hence, point 1 is correct.
• Sixth Schedule (2): Deals specifically with the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (often remembered by the acronym AMTM). It establishes Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils, which possess significant legislative, judicial, executive, and financial autonomy. Hence, point 2 is correct.
• Seventh Schedule (3): Deals with the division of powers between the Union and the States by enumerating three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. It does not deal with tribal administration.
• Tenth Schedule (4): Contains the Anti-Defection Law, which lays down provisions regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection.

Correct Answer: (b) 92323

Explanation:

From the given coding:

RAMON → 12345

So,

R = 1
A = 2
M = 3
O = 4
N = 5

DINESH → 675849

So,

D = 6
I = 7
N = 5
E = 8
S = 4
H = 9

Now write HAMAM using these codes:

H = 9
A = 2
M = 3
A = 2
M = 3

Therefore,

HAMAM = 92323

Hence, the correct answer is:

(b) 92323

Correct Answer: (d) 0 and 9

Explanation:

Given:

−3 < X < −1

Squaring throughout:

1 < X² < 9

Also,

−1 < Y < 1

Squaring gives:

0 ≤ Y² < 1

Now consider the expression:

X² − Y²

Minimum value:

X² can be very close to 1, and Y² can be very close to 1.

So, X² − Y² can be very close to 0, but cannot become 0.

Maximum value:

X² can be very close to 9, and Y² can be very close to 0.

So, X² − Y² can be very close to 9, but cannot become 9.

Therefore,

X² − Y² is greater than 0 and less than 9.

Hence, the correct answer is:

(d) 0 and 9

Correct Answer: (a) P

Explanation:

Since A sits second to the left of B:

Possible arrangement facing north:

A _ B

To satisfy “C is not an immediate neighbour of A”:

The arrangement becomes:

A D C B

Now Q faces B.

So Q is opposite B.

R sits at one end.

P is not an immediate neighbour of Q.

After arranging the second row according to all conditions, the valid arrangement becomes:

North-facing row:

A D C B

South-facing row:

P R S Q

Thus, P faces A.

Hence, the correct answer is:

(a) P

Correct Answer: (b) 2500

Explanation:

To avoid loss:

Sale price per unit must be at least equal to production cost per unit.

From the graphs:

• Initially, production cost is higher than sale price.
• As production increases, production cost decreases while sale price remains comparatively higher.
• The two curves intersect near 2500 units.

At the point of intersection:

Production cost = Sale price

This is the break-even point.

Therefore, the minimum number of pieces required to avoid loss is:

2500

Hence, the correct answer is:

(b) 2500

Correct Answer: (d) Access to cooking gas can reduce premature deaths in poor households.

Explanation:

The passage highlights that:

• Polluting cooking fuels like biomass and coal cause serious health problems.
• Household air pollution leads to a large number of premature deaths.
• Poor households are the worst affected.
• Clean cooking fuels such as LPG and natural gas are safer alternatives.

Option (d) is the most logical inference because cleaner cooking fuels reduce exposure to harmful smoke and indoor pollution, thereby reducing premature deaths.

Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not mention increased health awareness among rural people.

Option (b) is too extreme because subsidy alone may not completely solve indoor air pollution.

Option (c) is not directly inferred from the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is:

(d) Access to cooking gas can reduce premature deaths in poor households.