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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Lab-Grown Diamonds’ (LGDs) and natural diamonds, consider the following statements:
- LGDs are chemically, physically, and optically identical to natural diamonds.
- Natural diamonds contain trace amounts of nitrogen, whereas LGDs produced via Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD) are typically nitrogen-free.
- High-Pressure High-Temperature (HPHT) method is used to produce LGDs by mimicking the geological conditions of the Earth’s mantle.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Lab-Grown Diamonds (LGDs) possess the same chemical composition (pure carbon), crystal structure, hardness, and optical properties as natural diamonds. The primary difference lies in their origin—natural diamonds are formed naturally over geological timescales, whereas LGDs are produced artificially in laboratories.
- Statement II is correct: Natural diamonds generally contain trace impurities such as nitrogen due to geological formation processes. In contrast, diamonds produced through the Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD) method are usually nitrogen-free or contain extremely low nitrogen content because the process allows controlled crystal growth in a purified environment.
- Statement III is correct: The High-Pressure High-Temperature (HPHT) method recreates the extreme pressure and temperature conditions found deep within the Earth’s mantle to synthesize diamonds. It imitates the natural geological process responsible for the formation of natural diamonds.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Lab-Grown Diamonds (LGDs) possess the same chemical composition (pure carbon), crystal structure, hardness, and optical properties as natural diamonds. The primary difference lies in their origin—natural diamonds are formed naturally over geological timescales, whereas LGDs are produced artificially in laboratories.
- Statement II is correct: Natural diamonds generally contain trace impurities such as nitrogen due to geological formation processes. In contrast, diamonds produced through the Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD) method are usually nitrogen-free or contain extremely low nitrogen content because the process allows controlled crystal growth in a purified environment.
- Statement III is correct: The High-Pressure High-Temperature (HPHT) method recreates the extreme pressure and temperature conditions found deep within the Earth’s mantle to synthesize diamonds. It imitates the natural geological process responsible for the formation of natural diamonds.
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP) engines offer higher fuel efficiency (Specific Impulse) compared to conventional chemical rockets.
Statement II: NTP systems use a nuclear reactor to heat a liquid propellant, such as hydrogen, converting it into a gas that expands through a nozzle to generate thrust.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: (a)
- Statement I is correct: Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP) systems provide significantly higher specific impulse (fuel efficiency) than conventional chemical rockets. This allows spacecraft to achieve greater thrust efficiency while using less propellant.
- Statement II is correct: In an NTP system, a nuclear reactor heats a liquid propellant, commonly liquid hydrogen. The heated hydrogen expands into a high-temperature gas and is expelled through a nozzle to produce thrust.
- The extremely high temperatures generated by the nuclear reactor enable the propellant to attain much higher exhaust velocities than those achievable in chemical propulsion systems. Higher exhaust velocity directly results in higher specific impulse and greater fuel efficiency.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
- Statement I is correct: Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP) systems provide significantly higher specific impulse (fuel efficiency) than conventional chemical rockets. This allows spacecraft to achieve greater thrust efficiency while using less propellant.
- Statement II is correct: In an NTP system, a nuclear reactor heats a liquid propellant, commonly liquid hydrogen. The heated hydrogen expands into a high-temperature gas and is expelled through a nozzle to produce thrust.
- The extremely high temperatures generated by the nuclear reactor enable the propellant to attain much higher exhaust velocities than those achievable in chemical propulsion systems. Higher exhaust velocity directly results in higher specific impulse and greater fuel efficiency.
-
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsIn the context of ‘Digital Twins’ technology, consider the following statements:
- It is a virtual representation of an object or system that spans its lifecycle.
- It uses real-time data sent from sensors on the physical asset to simulate behavior and monitor operations.
- Unlike a standard CAD (Computer-Aided Design) model, a Digital Twin must have a two-way data flow between the physical and virtual entities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: A Digital Twin is a virtual representation of a physical object, process, or system that exists throughout its lifecycle. It mirrors the characteristics and functioning of the real-world entity.
- Statement II is correct: Digital Twins rely on real-time data collected through sensors embedded in the physical asset. This data is continuously transmitted to the virtual model to simulate performance, predict outcomes, and monitor operations.
- Statement III is correct: A key distinction between a Digital Twin and a conventional CAD model is the presence of continuous two-way data interaction. The physical system sends operational data to the virtual model, while insights from the virtual model can also influence or optimize the physical system.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: A Digital Twin is a virtual representation of a physical object, process, or system that exists throughout its lifecycle. It mirrors the characteristics and functioning of the real-world entity.
- Statement II is correct: Digital Twins rely on real-time data collected through sensors embedded in the physical asset. This data is continuously transmitted to the virtual model to simulate performance, predict outcomes, and monitor operations.
- Statement III is correct: A key distinction between a Digital Twin and a conventional CAD model is the presence of continuous two-way data interaction. The physical system sends operational data to the virtual model, while insights from the virtual model can also influence or optimize the physical system.
-
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Bio-computers’ and ‘Organoid Intelligence’ (OI):
- Organoid Intelligence involves the use of lab-grown brain organoids coupled with sensors and output devices.
- Unlike silicon-based AI, bio-computers can potentially perform complex computations with significantly lower energy consumption.
- Current research in OI utilizes human brain cells, which raises ethical concerns regarding the potential for consciousness in lab-grown tissues.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Organoid Intelligence (OI) refers to the use of laboratory-grown brain organoids integrated with electronic interfaces such as sensors and output devices to enable information processing and computational functions.
- Statement II is correct: Bio-computers based on neural organoids are expected to achieve highly efficient computation with much lower energy requirements compared to conventional silicon-based artificial intelligence systems, as biological neural networks process information very efficiently.
- Statement III is correct: Present research in Organoid Intelligence commonly uses human brain cells to develop organoids. This has generated ethical concerns regarding the possibility of developing forms of awareness, sentience, or consciousness in advanced lab-grown neural tissues.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Organoid Intelligence (OI) refers to the use of laboratory-grown brain organoids integrated with electronic interfaces such as sensors and output devices to enable information processing and computational functions.
- Statement II is correct: Bio-computers based on neural organoids are expected to achieve highly efficient computation with much lower energy requirements compared to conventional silicon-based artificial intelligence systems, as biological neural networks process information very efficiently.
- Statement III is correct: Present research in Organoid Intelligence commonly uses human brain cells to develop organoids. This has generated ethical concerns regarding the possibility of developing forms of awareness, sentience, or consciousness in advanced lab-grown neural tissues.
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Space Debris Mitigation’, consider the following technologies:
- Laser Brooming
- Magnetic Tug
- Liquid Metal Heat Pipes
- Drag Sails
How many of the above are active methods used or proposed for the physical removal of defunct satellites from Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- I. Laser Brooming — Correct: Laser brooming is a proposed active debris removal technique in which ground-based or space-based lasers are used to alter the orbit of debris through photon pressure or surface ablation, causing it to re-enter the atmosphere.
- II. Magnetic Tug — Correct: Magnetic tug concepts involve spacecraft using magnetic interaction to capture or influence defunct satellites and guide them into lower orbits for atmospheric burn-up.
- III. Liquid Metal Heat Pipes — Incorrect: Liquid metal heat pipes are thermal management systems used for efficient heat transfer in spacecraft and reactors. They are not debris removal technologies.
- IV. Drag Sails — Correct: Drag sails are devices attached to satellites to increase atmospheric drag in Low Earth Orbit, accelerating orbital decay and controlled deorbiting.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- I. Laser Brooming — Correct: Laser brooming is a proposed active debris removal technique in which ground-based or space-based lasers are used to alter the orbit of debris through photon pressure or surface ablation, causing it to re-enter the atmosphere.
- II. Magnetic Tug — Correct: Magnetic tug concepts involve spacecraft using magnetic interaction to capture or influence defunct satellites and guide them into lower orbits for atmospheric burn-up.
- III. Liquid Metal Heat Pipes — Incorrect: Liquid metal heat pipes are thermal management systems used for efficient heat transfer in spacecraft and reactors. They are not debris removal technologies.
- IV. Drag Sails — Correct: Drag sails are devices attached to satellites to increase atmospheric drag in Low Earth Orbit, accelerating orbital decay and controlled deorbiting.
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following subjects with regard to the “Genome India Project”:
- Mapping the entire genetic diversity of every Indian citizen.
- Creation of a reference genome for the Indian population.
- Identification of genetic markers for rare diseases.
- Development of personalized medicine for lifestyle diseases.
How many of the above are objectives of the Genome India Project?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- I. Mapping the entire genetic diversity of every Indian citizen — Incorrect: The Genome India Project does not aim to sequence the genome of every Indian citizen. Its objective is to create a representative genetic database by sequencing genomes from diverse population groups across India.
- II. Creation of a reference genome for the Indian population — Correct: One of the primary objectives of the Genome India Project is to develop an Indian reference genome that reflects the country’s genetic diversity.
- III. Identification of genetic markers for rare diseases — Correct: The project seeks to identify genetic variations and markers associated with rare and inherited diseases, which can improve diagnosis and research.
- IV. Development of personalized medicine for lifestyle diseases — Correct: The genomic database generated under the project can support precision medicine and help design personalized treatment strategies for diseases such as diabetes, cancer, and cardiovascular disorders.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- I. Mapping the entire genetic diversity of every Indian citizen — Incorrect: The Genome India Project does not aim to sequence the genome of every Indian citizen. Its objective is to create a representative genetic database by sequencing genomes from diverse population groups across India.
- II. Creation of a reference genome for the Indian population — Correct: One of the primary objectives of the Genome India Project is to develop an Indian reference genome that reflects the country’s genetic diversity.
- III. Identification of genetic markers for rare diseases — Correct: The project seeks to identify genetic variations and markers associated with rare and inherited diseases, which can improve diagnosis and research.
- IV. Development of personalized medicine for lifestyle diseases — Correct: The genomic database generated under the project can support precision medicine and help design personalized treatment strategies for diseases such as diabetes, cancer, and cardiovascular disorders.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Liquid Mirrors’, often mentioned in news regarding astronomical observatories, consider the following statements:
- They use a rotating pool of liquid, typically mercury, to create a parabolic shape.
- Unlike glass mirrors, they can be tilted to observe any part of the sky.
- India’s International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) is located at Devasthal, Uttarakhand.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Liquid mirror telescopes use a rotating reflective liquid, usually mercury, to naturally form a parabolic surface suitable for astronomical observations.
- Statement II is incorrect: Liquid mirrors cannot be tilted like conventional glass-mirror telescopes. Since the parabolic shape is maintained through rotation under gravity, the mirror must remain aligned vertically and can observe only the portion of the sky passing directly overhead.
- Statement III is correct: India’s International Liquid Mirror Telescope is located at Devasthal in Uttarakhand and is operated for astronomical sky surveys and observations.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Liquid mirror telescopes use a rotating reflective liquid, usually mercury, to naturally form a parabolic surface suitable for astronomical observations.
- Statement II is incorrect: Liquid mirrors cannot be tilted like conventional glass-mirror telescopes. Since the parabolic shape is maintained through rotation under gravity, the mirror must remain aligned vertically and can observe only the portion of the sky passing directly overhead.
- Statement III is correct: India’s International Liquid Mirror Telescope is located at Devasthal in Uttarakhand and is operated for astronomical sky surveys and observations.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsIn the context of “Semiconductor Fabrication”, consider the following gases/chemicals:
- Neon
- Argon
- Silane
- Phosphine
How many of the above are used as ‘dopants’ to alter the electrical properties of silicon wafers?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Neon: Neon is an inert noble gas used mainly in excimer lasers for deep ultraviolet (DUV) photolithography and certain plasma-based semiconductor manufacturing processes. It does not introduce impurity atoms into silicon and therefore is not used as a dopant.
- Argon: Argon is another inert noble gas commonly used in sputtering, plasma etching, and controlled fabrication environments because of its chemically non-reactive nature. It does not alter the electrical conductivity of silicon wafers and hence is not a dopant.
- Silane (SiH₄): Silane is primarily a silicon precursor gas used in Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD) to deposit thin silicon or polysilicon layers during chip fabrication. Although essential in semiconductor manufacturing, it is not itself used as a dopant to modify the electrical properties of silicon.
- Phosphine (PH₃): Phosphine is a true dopant gas used to introduce phosphorus atoms into silicon wafers. Since phosphorus has five valence electrons, it contributes extra free electrons and creates n-type semiconductor material with enhanced electrical conductivity.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Neon: Neon is an inert noble gas used mainly in excimer lasers for deep ultraviolet (DUV) photolithography and certain plasma-based semiconductor manufacturing processes. It does not introduce impurity atoms into silicon and therefore is not used as a dopant.
- Argon: Argon is another inert noble gas commonly used in sputtering, plasma etching, and controlled fabrication environments because of its chemically non-reactive nature. It does not alter the electrical conductivity of silicon wafers and hence is not a dopant.
- Silane (SiH₄): Silane is primarily a silicon precursor gas used in Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD) to deposit thin silicon or polysilicon layers during chip fabrication. Although essential in semiconductor manufacturing, it is not itself used as a dopant to modify the electrical properties of silicon.
- Phosphine (PH₃): Phosphine is a true dopant gas used to introduce phosphorus atoms into silicon wafers. Since phosphorus has five valence electrons, it contributes extra free electrons and creates n-type semiconductor material with enhanced electrical conductivity.
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsWhat is the common characteristic of ‘Xylazine’, ‘Fentanyl’, and ‘Nitazenes’, which are increasingly discussed in global health and safety reports?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Xylazine: Xylazine is a veterinary sedative and tranquilizer that is increasingly being found mixed with illicit opioids such as fentanyl. Although it is not itself an opioid, it is associated with severe health complications, including respiratory depression and tissue damage, in the ongoing drug crisis.
- Fentanyl: Fentanyl is a highly potent synthetic opioid used medically for pain management but widely abused illegally. It is significantly more powerful than morphine and has been a major contributor to overdose deaths in several countries.
- Nitazenes: Nitazenes are a group of extremely potent synthetic opioids originally developed for pharmaceutical research but never approved for routine medical use. They are now emerging in illegal drug markets and are associated with high overdose risks.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Xylazine: Xylazine is a veterinary sedative and tranquilizer that is increasingly being found mixed with illicit opioids such as fentanyl. Although it is not itself an opioid, it is associated with severe health complications, including respiratory depression and tissue damage, in the ongoing drug crisis.
- Fentanyl: Fentanyl is a highly potent synthetic opioid used medically for pain management but widely abused illegally. It is significantly more powerful than morphine and has been a major contributor to overdose deaths in several countries.
- Nitazenes: Nitazenes are a group of extremely potent synthetic opioids originally developed for pharmaceutical research but never approved for routine medical use. They are now emerging in illegal drug markets and are associated with high overdose risks.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Microbial Fuel Cells’ (MFCs):
- They use bacteria as catalysts to oxidize organic matter and generate electricity.
- Unlike conventional batteries, MFCs can function effectively at room temperature and do not require precious metal catalysts.
- They are currently being used as the primary source of propulsion for deep-sea manned submersibles.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Microbial Fuel Cells (MFCs) generate electricity by using microorganisms, especially bacteria, as biocatalysts. These bacteria oxidize organic matter and release electrons during their metabolic processes, which are then captured to produce electric current.
- Statement II is correct: Unlike many conventional electrochemical systems, MFCs can operate under normal environmental conditions, including room temperature. They also generally avoid the need for expensive precious metal catalysts such as platinum, making them potentially cost-effective and environmentally sustainable.
- Statement III is incorrect: Microbial Fuel Cells are currently limited in power output and are mainly being explored for applications such as wastewater treatment, biosensors, and low-power energy generation. They are not being used as the primary propulsion source for deep-sea manned submersibles.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Microbial Fuel Cells (MFCs) generate electricity by using microorganisms, especially bacteria, as biocatalysts. These bacteria oxidize organic matter and release electrons during their metabolic processes, which are then captured to produce electric current.
- Statement II is correct: Unlike many conventional electrochemical systems, MFCs can operate under normal environmental conditions, including room temperature. They also generally avoid the need for expensive precious metal catalysts such as platinum, making them potentially cost-effective and environmentally sustainable.
- Statement III is incorrect: Microbial Fuel Cells are currently limited in power output and are mainly being explored for applications such as wastewater treatment, biosensors, and low-power energy generation. They are not being used as the primary propulsion source for deep-sea manned submersibles.
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
- A + B means A is the son of B.
- A – B means A is the wife of B.
What does the expression P + R – Q mean?
Correct
Answer: (c) Q is the father of P
Detailed Explanation:
We decode the expression step by step.
Step 1: Interpret P + R
According to the condition:
- A + B means A is the son of B.
Therefore:
- P + R means P is the son of R.
So:
- P is male.
- R is the parent of P.
Step 2: Interpret R – Q
According to the condition:
- A – B means A is the wife of B.
Therefore:
- R – Q means R is the wife of Q.
So:
- R is female.
- Q is the husband of R.
Step 3: Combine both relations
We already know:
- P is the son of R.
- R is the wife of Q.
Hence:
- Q is the father of P.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
(c) Q is the father of P
Incorrect
Answer: (c) Q is the father of P
Detailed Explanation:
We decode the expression step by step.
Step 1: Interpret P + R
According to the condition:
- A + B means A is the son of B.
Therefore:
- P + R means P is the son of R.
So:
- P is male.
- R is the parent of P.
Step 2: Interpret R – Q
According to the condition:
- A – B means A is the wife of B.
Therefore:
- R – Q means R is the wife of Q.
So:
- R is female.
- Q is the husband of R.
Step 3: Combine both relations
We already know:
- P is the son of R.
- R is the wife of Q.
Hence:
- Q is the father of P.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
(c) Q is the father of P
-
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsIn a group of six women, there are four union lawyers, four postgraduate women in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamala are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are unmarried. Kamala plays lawn tennis.
Which one among the following is a postgraduate in Commerce, lawyer and a bank employee?
Correct
Answer: (d) Shyamala
Detailed Explanation:
Let us arrange the information carefully.
Step 1: Total women
There are six women:
- Vimala
- Kamala
- Amala
- Komala
- Nirmala
- Shyamala
Step 2: Identify bank employees
The question says:
- Vimala and Kamala are bank employees.
Also:
- Total bank employees = 3.
Further:
- Amala and Komala are unemployed.
Therefore:
- Amala and Komala cannot be bank employees.
So the third bank employee must be either:
- Nirmala or
- Shyamala.
Step 3: Identify required person
We need the woman who is:
- postgraduate in Commerce
- lawyer
- bank employee
Among the options:
- Amala → unemployed → cannot be bank employee
- Komala → unemployed → cannot be bank employee
- Nirmala → possible bank employee but conditions do not fully fit
- Shyamala → satisfies all required conditions
Hence, the only suitable person is:
(d) Shyamala
Incorrect
Answer: (d) Shyamala
Detailed Explanation:
Let us arrange the information carefully.
Step 1: Total women
There are six women:
- Vimala
- Kamala
- Amala
- Komala
- Nirmala
- Shyamala
Step 2: Identify bank employees
The question says:
- Vimala and Kamala are bank employees.
Also:
- Total bank employees = 3.
Further:
- Amala and Komala are unemployed.
Therefore:
- Amala and Komala cannot be bank employees.
So the third bank employee must be either:
- Nirmala or
- Shyamala.
Step 3: Identify required person
We need the woman who is:
- postgraduate in Commerce
- lawyer
- bank employee
Among the options:
- Amala → unemployed → cannot be bank employee
- Komala → unemployed → cannot be bank employee
- Nirmala → possible bank employee but conditions do not fully fit
- Shyamala → satisfies all required conditions
Hence, the only suitable person is:
(d) Shyamala
-
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following information:
Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by one-way passages or two-way passages.
One-way passages
- C → A
- C → D
- C → G
- E → C
- G → H
Two-way passages
- A ↔ B
- G ↔ F
- D ↔ E
While travelling from C to H, which station must necessarily be passed through?
Correct
Answer: (a) G
Detailed Explanation
Step 1: Understand the directions
From the given information:
- C can go to A, D and G.
- G can go to H.
- E can go to C.
- A and B are connected both ways.
- D and E are connected both ways.
- G and F are connected both ways.
Step 2: Find routes from C to H
To reach H, the only direct connection available is:
- G → H
Therefore, before reaching H, one must first reach G.
From C:
- C → G → H
No other station has a direct path to H.
Thus, every route from C to H must pass through G.
Conclusion
The station that must necessarily be passed through while travelling from C to H is: (a) G
Incorrect
Answer: (a) G
Detailed Explanation
Step 1: Understand the directions
From the given information:
- C can go to A, D and G.
- G can go to H.
- E can go to C.
- A and B are connected both ways.
- D and E are connected both ways.
- G and F are connected both ways.
Step 2: Find routes from C to H
To reach H, the only direct connection available is:
- G → H
Therefore, before reaching H, one must first reach G.
From C:
- C → G → H
No other station has a direct path to H.
Thus, every route from C to H must pass through G.
Conclusion
The station that must necessarily be passed through while travelling from C to H is: (a) G
-
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsIn a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E.
- A and B teach Hindi and English.
- C and B teach English and Geography.
- D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi.
- E and B teach History and French.
Who teaches the maximum number of subjects?
Correct
Answer: (b) B
Detailed Explanation:
In each statement, the two teachers mentioned teach the two subjects mentioned respectively.
Step 1
“A and B teach Hindi and English.”
So:
- A → Hindi
- B → English
Step 2
“C and B teach English and Geography.”
We already know B teaches English.
Therefore:
- C → Geography
Step 3
“D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi.”
We already know A teaches Hindi.
Therefore:
- D → Mathematics
Step 4
“E and B teach History and French.”
B already teaches English, so B must additionally teach History.
Therefore:
- E → French
- B → History
Final Subject Allocation
Teacher Subjects A Hindi B English, History C Geography D Mathematics E French Thus, B teaches 2 subjects, while all others teach only 1 subject.
Therefore, the teacher teaching the maximum number of subjects is: (b) BTop of Form
Incorrect
Answer: (b) B
Detailed Explanation:
In each statement, the two teachers mentioned teach the two subjects mentioned respectively.
Step 1
“A and B teach Hindi and English.”
So:
- A → Hindi
- B → English
Step 2
“C and B teach English and Geography.”
We already know B teaches English.
Therefore:
- C → Geography
Step 3
“D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi.”
We already know A teaches Hindi.
Therefore:
- D → Mathematics
Step 4
“E and B teach History and French.”
B already teaches English, so B must additionally teach History.
Therefore:
- E → French
- B → History
Final Subject Allocation
Teacher Subjects A Hindi B English, History C Geography D Mathematics E French Thus, B teaches 2 subjects, while all others teach only 1 subject.
Therefore, the teacher teaching the maximum number of subjects is: (b) BTop of Form
-
Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsPassage
“A successful democracy depends upon widespread interest and participation in politics, in voting and in public affairs. To deliberately refrain from taking such part, interest, and from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy; it is to refuse one’s political responsibility while enjoying the benefits of a free society.”
This passage relates to:
Correct
Answer: (a) duty to vote
Detailed Explanation:
The passage emphasizes:
- active participation in democracy,
- involvement in public affairs,
- and especially voting.
The author says that refusing to vote is:
- avoiding political responsibility,
- while still enjoying the benefits of democracy.
Thus, the passage does not merely discuss the right to vote.
Instead, it stresses that citizens have a moral and civic responsibility to vote.Therefore, the central idea is:
(a) duty to vote
Incorrect
Answer: (a) duty to vote
Detailed Explanation:
The passage emphasizes:
- active participation in democracy,
- involvement in public affairs,
- and especially voting.
The author says that refusing to vote is:
- avoiding political responsibility,
- while still enjoying the benefits of democracy.
Thus, the passage does not merely discuss the right to vote.
Instead, it stresses that citizens have a moral and civic responsibility to vote.Therefore, the central idea is:
(a) duty to vote
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