DAY – 68 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : Geography Full Syllabus

Answer:    (a)

Explanation:

• Statement I is Correct: Recent climate data and studies by institutions like the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) show a significant surge in the frequency, duration, and intensity of Marine Heatwaves (MHWs) in the Indian Ocean. The Arabian Sea has emerged as a major hotspot, experiencing a much faster rate of warming compared to historical averages.
• Statement II is Correct: The primary mechanism driving these localized, intense warming events is atmospheric-oceanic coupling. During the pre-monsoon and early monsoon phases, if the monsoon winds weaken, the mechanical mixing of the upper ocean layers decreases. Crucially, weaker winds mean a sharp decline in evaporative cooling (the process by which the ocean sheds latent heat into the atmosphere).

Statement II explains Statement I:

1. The atmosphere experiences anomalies that cause monsoon winds to slow down or weaken.
2. Without strong winds, the ocean surface cannot evaporate water efficiently, trapping heat in the top layer.
3. Simultaneously, solar radiation continues to heat the stagnant surface water.
4. This lack of heat dissipation directly causes the sea surface temperatures to spike well above the 90th percentile of historical data, which is the literal definition of a Marine Heatwave.

Answer:    (a)

Explanation:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI): [Incorrect Parent Act] The AWBI is a statutory advisory body, but it was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (not the Wildlife Protection Act). It was famously championed by Rukmini Devi Arundale.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): [Correct Parent Act] The NTCA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It was established by amending the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in 2006 (under Chapter IVB) to strengthen tiger conservation management and give statutory backing to Project Tiger.
3. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA): [Incorrect Parent Act] The NBA is a statutory autonomous body established in 2003. However, it was created under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, to implement India’s commitments under the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

Answer:    (d)

Explanation:

• Fireflies: [Correct] This is the most universally recognized example. Fireflies (lightning bugs) produce a chemically generated cold light from their lower abdomen, primarily used as a flashing signal to attract mates or prey.
• Certain species of Fungi: [Correct] There are over 100 known species of bioluminescent fungi (such as Panellus stipticus or Mycena species). Often referred to as Foxfire or fairy glow, their decaying wood or fruiting bodies emit a steady greenish-glowing light, which is thought to attract nocturnal insects to aid in spore dispersal.
• Dinoflagellates: [Correct] These marine plankton are the primary cause of the glowing ocean phenomenon known as Sea Sparkle (often visible at beaches like Juhu in Mumbai or beaches in Goa). When agitated by breaking waves or boat hulls, a chemical reaction triggers a brilliant blue-green flash to startle potential predators.
• Deep-sea Anglerfish: [Correct] In the pitch-black midnight zone of the deep ocean, the female anglerfish sports a modified dorsal filament called an esca (a biological fishing rod). The tip of this rod glows brightly due to a symbiotic relationship with bioluminescent bacteria, effectively luring unsuspecting prey directly toward its jaws.

Answer:    (b)

Explanation:

• Statement I is Correct: PM2.5 refers to airborne particles with an aerodynamic diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers. Because of their microscopic size (roughly 1/30th the width of a human hair), these particles escape the natural filtration systems of the upper respiratory tract. They travel deep into the lungs, reach the alveoli (air sacs), easily cross the thin alveolar-capillary membrane, and enter the human bloodstream directly, causing systemic cardiovascular and neurological inflammation.
• Statement II is Correct: PM2.5 is not a single chemical pollutant; it is a complex mixture of primary particles (emitted directly like soot or dust) and secondary particles. Secondary Organic Aerosols (SOAs) are a massive component of urban PM2.5 They are formed in the atmosphere when gaseous precursor pollutants like Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)—emitted from vehicles, industrial solvents, and biogenic sources—undergo chemical oxidation and condensation reactions.

Statement II does not explain Statement I:

• The reason PM2.5 can penetrate the blood barrier (Statement I) is purely due to its physical scale and microscopic size.
• The fact that it contains secondary organic aerosols (Statement II) describes its chemical origin and composition, not the mechanical reason for its deep physiological penetration.

Answer:    (b)

Explanation:

• The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) was explicitly created to finance the implementation of the historic Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), which was ratified at COP15 of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in December 2022.
• To avoid creating a brand new administrative bureaucracy, the member nations designated the Global Environment Facility (GEF) to manage and govern this new fund. The GBFF was officially launched and ratified at the GEF Assembly in Vancouver, Canada, in August 2023.

Key Features of the GBFF:

• The 30×30 Target: The primary focus of the fund is to mobilize financial resources to meet the 30×30 target—protecting at least 30% of the world’s land and coastal oceans by 2030.
• Focus on Indigenous Communities: Unlike traditional international funds, the GBFF has a specific mandate to direct a significant portion of its resources (with an aspirational target of up to 20%) to support Indigenous Peoples and local communities (IPLCs), recognizing them as the primary guardians of biodiversity.
• Diversified Funding: It is designed to accept voluntary contributions not just from developed sovereign nations, but also from philanthropic organizations and the private sector.

Answer:   (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Variable Rate Technology (VRT) is a core component of precision farming. Instead of treating an entire field uniformly (the traditional approach), VRT enables the automated, precise application of inputs like seeds, fertilizers, chemical pesticides, and irrigation water at varying rates across different zones of a single field based on localized soil fertility, moisture levels, or pest pressure.
• Statement 2 is Correct: VRT cannot function in isolation; it is data-driven. It relies on a combination of Global Positioning Systems (GPS) for real-time tractor positioning, sensors (optical, electromagnetic, or radiometric) to gauge soil and crop health on the go, and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to synthesize historical yield maps and soil grid data into an actionable prescription map.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: This is the critical economic trap. The primary objective of VRT is not to chase absolute maximum yield blindly regardless of input cost. Instead, its objective is to optimize input efficiency and maximize profitability. By reducing input application in low-potential or over-fertilized zones and increasing it only where the crop can effectively utilize it, VRT aims to optimize the output-to-input ratio, lower overall operational costs, and minimize environmental runoff.

Answer:    (a)

Explanation:

• Statement I is Incorrect: Unlike conventional urea, which is manufactured as solid prills or granules and broad-casted directly onto the soil, Nano Urea is a liquid fertilizer. It is distributed in bottles (typically 500 ml) and must be diluted in water before application.
• Statement II is Correct: Nano Urea is designed for foliar application (sprayed directly onto the leaves of standing crops). Because the nitrogen particles are scaled down to the nanoscale (ranging from 20 to 50 nanometers), they easily penetrate the leaf surface through the stomata (microscopic pores) or via hydrophilic pathways, delivering nutrients directly to the plant cells.
• Statement III is Correct: One of the greatest environmental crises of conventional urea is its low efficiency; over 50% to 70% of the applied nitrogen is lost via groundwater leaching (causing eutrophication) or atmospheric volatilization as ammonia gas. Because Nano Urea is targeted directly to the foliage and absorbed rapidly by the plant tissues, it effectively circumvents these soil-based pathways, drastically reducing environmental pollution.

Answer:    (a)

Explanation:

• Statement I is Correct: Fertigation is the technological process of injecting water-soluble fertilizers directly into the irrigation system. When combined with drip irrigation, it has been scientifically proven to reduce the total quantity of chemical fertilizers required by up to 25% to 50% compared to conventional soil broadcasting methods, without compromising crop yields.
• Statement II is Correct: Drip irrigation delivers water drop-by-drop through a network of valves, pipes, tubing, and emitters. Because the dissolved nutrients are placed directly into the soil zone where root density is highest, the plant can absorb them almost instantaneously. This localized application minimizes common resource losses, such as surface water runoff, deep leaching past the root zone, and weed consumption.

Statement II explains Statement I:

1. The Cause (Statement II): Micro-irrigation infrastructure delivers a slow, controlled, and targeted supply of water-dissolved nutrients directly to the active root zone, significantly cutting down on structural waste like surface runoff or deep soil leaching.
2. The Effect (Statement I): Because these structural losses are prevented and the plant utilizes nearly every unit of nutrient applied (high fertilizer use efficiency), a farmer no longer needs to over-apply inputs to compensate for waste. Consequently, the total volumetric quantity of fertilizer required by the crop drops significantly.

Answer:   (d)

Explanation:

Option (d) is Correct: Relay Cropping is an intensive form of multiple cropping where a second crop is sown or planted into an established first crop before the first crop reaches full maturity or is harvested. The life cycles of the two crops overlap for a part of their growing seasons.

• Example: Sowing pulses like lathyrus, lentil, or chickpea into a standing rice field a few weeks before the paddy is harvested (often referred to as Paira or Utera cultivation in eastern India).

Answer:    (b)

Explanation:

• Nigerseed — Oilseed: Correct. Nigerseed is one of the 7 oilseeds for which the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends a Minimum Support Price (MSP).
• Copra — Pulses: Incorrect. Copra (dried coconut) is categorized as a Commercial Crop, not a pulse. The government announces MSP for two types of copra: milling copra and ball copra.
• Raw Jute — Commercial Crop: Correct. Raw Jute is officially classified under the Commercial Crops category for MSP calculation, alongside sugarcane, cotton, and copra.

Answer: (b) 12 : 48 hrs

Explanation:
To find when all three bells will ring together again, we calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 18, 24 and 32.

18 = 2 × 3²
24 = 2³ × 3
32 = 2⁵

LCM = 2⁵ × 3² = 32 × 9 = 288 minutes

288 minutes = 4 hours 48 minutes

Therefore:

8:00 AM + 4 hours 48 minutes = 12:48 hrs

Hence, all the bells will ring together again at 12 : 48 hrs.

Answer: (c) Q is the father of P

Explanation:

P + R means P is the son of R.

R – Q means R is the wife of Q. Therefore, Q is the husband of R.

Since P is the son of R and Q is R’s husband, Q is the father of P.

Hence, the correct answer is (c) Q is the father of P.

Answer: (c) Sustainable development and climate adaptation strategies are necessary for the Himalayan ecosystem.

Explanation:

The passage highlights the vulnerability of the Himalayan ecosystem due to climate change and its impact on human livelihoods.

Option (c) logically follows because the issues mentioned in the passage require long-term adaptation and sustainable management strategies.

Option (a) is too absolute because the passage does not state climate change is the only reason.
Option (b) is an unsupported suggestion.
Option (d) is an extreme conclusion not supported by the passage.

Therefore, option (c) is the most logical inference.

Answer: (d) Oranges

Explanation:

B and C are the only persons who fell sick.

Fruits eaten by B: grapes, oranges
Fruits eaten by C: oranges, pineapple, apple

The common fruit between B and C is oranges.

Grapes and pineapple cannot be the cause because A and D also consumed them but did not fall sick.
Apple also cannot be the cause because D consumed it and remained healthy.

Hence, oranges were the cause of sickness.

Answer: (d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking

Explanation:

The statement implies that at least one of the two activities — picnic or trekking — will take place.

The statement becomes false only if neither activity takes place.

Option (a) satisfies the statement because a picnic occurs.
Option (c) also satisfies the statement because trekking occurs.
Option (b) is unrelated to whether the activities actually happen.

Therefore, the statement is falsified only by option (d).