Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
The “Andes virus,” which has recently caused an outbreak on a Dutch expedition vessel, is distinguished from most other Hantaviruses by its ability to:
Correct
Solution: C
- Hantaviruses are typically zoonotic, spread by rodents through urine, saliva, or excreta. Most strains are not transmitted between humans. However, the Andes virus, prevalent in South America, is the only Hantavirus known to occasionally spread through person-to-person contact.
- The outbreak on the MV Hondius, a Dutch vessel that departed from Argentina, has highlighted this risk, leading to the isolation of the ship off Cape Verde as authorities and the WHO monitor for potential human-to-human transmission among the 149 people on board.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Hantaviruses are typically zoonotic, spread by rodents through urine, saliva, or excreta. Most strains are not transmitted between humans. However, the Andes virus, prevalent in South America, is the only Hantavirus known to occasionally spread through person-to-person contact.
- The outbreak on the MV Hondius, a Dutch vessel that departed from Argentina, has highlighted this risk, leading to the isolation of the ship off Cape Verde as authorities and the WHO monitor for potential human-to-human transmission among the 149 people on board.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to the constitutional provisions regarding government formation in Indian States, consider the following statements:
- In the event of a hung assembly, the Governor is constitutionally mandated to invite the leader of the single largest party to form the government, regardless of their ability to prove a majority.
- The “floor test” as a method to establish majority support is a modern convention and has no basis in judicial precedents such as the R. Bommai case.
- Under Article 356, the Governor can dissolve the Legislative Assembly immediately upon the conclusion of elections if no single party secures an absolute majority.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution does not mandate that the Governor must invite the single largest party in a hung assembly. The Governor enjoys limited discretionary power and is expected to identify the person most likely to command majority support in the Assembly. Judicial pronouncements and Sarkaria Commission recommendations indicate that preference may also be given to a post-poll coalition or alliance capable of demonstrating majority support. Therefore, the ability to secure confidence of the House is more important than merely being the single largest party.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The concept of a floor test has strong judicial backing. In the landmark S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court emphasized that majority support of a government should ordinarily be tested on the floor of the House rather than determined subjectively by the Governor. Later judgments such as Rameshwar Prasad and Shivraj Singh Chouhan cases further reinforced this constitutional convention.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 356 permits President’s Rule only when the constitutional machinery in a State has failed. Mere absence of a clear majority after elections does not automatically justify dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. The Governor must first explore all possible alternatives for government formation, including alliances and floor tests. Dissolution without exhausting constitutional options would be contrary to constitutional morality and judicial principles laid down in multiple Supreme Court decisions.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution does not mandate that the Governor must invite the single largest party in a hung assembly. The Governor enjoys limited discretionary power and is expected to identify the person most likely to command majority support in the Assembly. Judicial pronouncements and Sarkaria Commission recommendations indicate that preference may also be given to a post-poll coalition or alliance capable of demonstrating majority support. Therefore, the ability to secure confidence of the House is more important than merely being the single largest party.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The concept of a floor test has strong judicial backing. In the landmark S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court emphasized that majority support of a government should ordinarily be tested on the floor of the House rather than determined subjectively by the Governor. Later judgments such as Rameshwar Prasad and Shivraj Singh Chouhan cases further reinforced this constitutional convention.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 356 permits President’s Rule only when the constitutional machinery in a State has failed. Mere absence of a clear majority after elections does not automatically justify dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. The Governor must first explore all possible alternatives for government formation, including alliances and floor tests. Dissolution without exhausting constitutional options would be contrary to constitutional morality and judicial principles laid down in multiple Supreme Court decisions.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Match the following environmental pollutants with their primary characteristics/precursors:
Column I (Pollutant) Column II (Primary Characteristic/Precursor) A. Particulate Matter (PM) 1. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) B. Ground-level Ozone 2. Temperature Inversion (Winter peaks) C. Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) 3. High-temperature combustion byproduct Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- Particulate Matter (PM), especially PM2.5 and PM10, tends to accumulate heavily during winter because of temperature inversion. Under inversion conditions, colder air gets trapped near the surface beneath a layer of warmer air, preventing vertical dispersion of pollutants. This leads to sharp winter pollution peaks in cities such as Delhi. Hence, A-2 is correctly matched.
- Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed through photochemical reactions involving Nitrogen Oxides () and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. VOCs are therefore among the primary precursors responsible for ozone formation. Ground-level ozone is harmful to respiratory health and crops, unlike stratospheric ozone which protects Earth from ultraviolet radiation. Hence, B-1 is correctly matched.
- Nitrogen Oxides () are mainly produced during high-temperature combustion processes where atmospheric nitrogen reacts with oxygen. Major sources include vehicle engines, thermal power plants, and industrial furnaces. These gases contribute to smog, acid rain, and ozone formation. Hence, C-3 is correctly matched.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Particulate Matter (PM), especially PM2.5 and PM10, tends to accumulate heavily during winter because of temperature inversion. Under inversion conditions, colder air gets trapped near the surface beneath a layer of warmer air, preventing vertical dispersion of pollutants. This leads to sharp winter pollution peaks in cities such as Delhi. Hence, A-2 is correctly matched.
- Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed through photochemical reactions involving Nitrogen Oxides () and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. VOCs are therefore among the primary precursors responsible for ozone formation. Ground-level ozone is harmful to respiratory health and crops, unlike stratospheric ozone which protects Earth from ultraviolet radiation. Hence, B-1 is correctly matched.
- Nitrogen Oxides () are mainly produced during high-temperature combustion processes where atmospheric nitrogen reacts with oxygen. Major sources include vehicle engines, thermal power plants, and industrial furnaces. These gases contribute to smog, acid rain, and ozone formation. Hence, C-3 is correctly matched.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Which of the following best describes the ‘Urban Challenge Fund (UCF)’?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) is a market-linked, reform-driven, and outcome-oriented It is designed to move away from the “grant-dependence” of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). Instead of providing the full cost of a project, the Central Government provides a “catalytic” outlay (limited to 25%). This acts as a guarantee or a de-risking mechanism, making it easier for cities to attract private investment and borrow from the market. This creates a leverage effect; for every rupee of central assistance, the fund aims to mobilize four rupees of total investment.
The fund focuses on several key sectors, including the redevelopment of old city areas, urban mobility, and climate-resilient infrastructure. A significant component is the Credit Repayment Guarantee Sub-Scheme (CRGSS), which specifically helps Tier-II and Tier-III cities—which often have lower credit ratings—to access institutional credit. By linking funding to the implementation of urban reforms, the UCF ensures that cities become financially sustainable growth hubs capable of supporting the long-term vision of a developed India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) is a market-linked, reform-driven, and outcome-oriented It is designed to move away from the “grant-dependence” of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). Instead of providing the full cost of a project, the Central Government provides a “catalytic” outlay (limited to 25%). This acts as a guarantee or a de-risking mechanism, making it easier for cities to attract private investment and borrow from the market. This creates a leverage effect; for every rupee of central assistance, the fund aims to mobilize four rupees of total investment.
The fund focuses on several key sectors, including the redevelopment of old city areas, urban mobility, and climate-resilient infrastructure. A significant component is the Credit Repayment Guarantee Sub-Scheme (CRGSS), which specifically helps Tier-II and Tier-III cities—which often have lower credit ratings—to access institutional credit. By linking funding to the implementation of urban reforms, the UCF ensures that cities become financially sustainable growth hubs capable of supporting the long-term vision of a developed India.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), consider the following statements:
- The scheme provides a guaranteed monthly pension to both the subscriber and the spouse.
- In the event of the death of both the subscriber and the spouse, the accumulated corpus is forfeited to the Government.
- Subscribers have the flexibility to adjust their pension amount twice every financial year.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct; APY offers “Triple Benefits”—a guaranteed pension to the subscriber, and upon their death, the same amount is paid to the spouse.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; one of the highlights of the scheme is that after the death of both the subscriber and the spouse, the total accumulated pension corpus (pension wealth) is returned to the nominee.
Statement 3 is incorrect; while the scheme offers flexibility, subscribers can increase or decrease their pension amount only once a year during the accumulation phase. The scheme is a crucial Sampurna Suraksha Kavach for those in the informal economy, ensuring financial independence in old age through a regulated, government-backed mechanism.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct; APY offers “Triple Benefits”—a guaranteed pension to the subscriber, and upon their death, the same amount is paid to the spouse.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; one of the highlights of the scheme is that after the death of both the subscriber and the spouse, the total accumulated pension corpus (pension wealth) is returned to the nominee.
Statement 3 is incorrect; while the scheme offers flexibility, subscribers can increase or decrease their pension amount only once a year during the accumulation phase. The scheme is a crucial Sampurna Suraksha Kavach for those in the informal economy, ensuring financial independence in old age through a regulated, government-backed mechanism.
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