The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Poliomyelitis (Polio), consider the following statements:
- The disease is characterized by its ability to spread primarily through respiratory droplets in crowded urban environments.
- The Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) is known for providing superior intestinal immunity compared to the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV).
- A country is typically granted polio-free certification by the WHO after maintaining zero new cases for a continuous period of three years.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Polio is a highly infectious viral disease that primarily targets the nervous system. While it is often associated with children, it can affect any unvaccinated individual.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the primary mode of transmission is the faecal-oral route, involving contaminated food or water, where the virus multiplies in the intestine.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because it is the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) that provides robust intestinal immunity, making it effective at stopping person-to-person transmission, whereas the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) provides systemic protection (in the blood) but less intestinal immunity.
- Statement 3 is correct and reflects the standard protocol followed by the World Health Organization (WHO). India, for instance, reported its last case in 2011 and received certification in 2014. The global effort under the Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) has successfully reduced cases by over 99% since 1988.
- However, the disease remains endemic in Pakistan and Afghanistan, necessitating high-alert surveillance in neighboring regions like India to prevent re-importation. Preventing paralysis, which occurs in 1 in 200 infections, relies entirely on achieving high vaccination coverage since there is no known cure for the disease once it manifests.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Polio is a highly infectious viral disease that primarily targets the nervous system. While it is often associated with children, it can affect any unvaccinated individual.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the primary mode of transmission is the faecal-oral route, involving contaminated food or water, where the virus multiplies in the intestine.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because it is the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) that provides robust intestinal immunity, making it effective at stopping person-to-person transmission, whereas the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) provides systemic protection (in the blood) but less intestinal immunity.
- Statement 3 is correct and reflects the standard protocol followed by the World Health Organization (WHO). India, for instance, reported its last case in 2011 and received certification in 2014. The global effort under the Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) has successfully reduced cases by over 99% since 1988.
- However, the disease remains endemic in Pakistan and Afghanistan, necessitating high-alert surveillance in neighboring regions like India to prevent re-importation. Preventing paralysis, which occurs in 1 in 200 infections, relies entirely on achieving high vaccination coverage since there is no known cure for the disease once it manifests.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and its functions:
- The ITBP is the Central Armed Police Force that specializes in sub-zero survival and high-altitude tactical warfare.
- Its administrative control lies with the Ministry of Defence, while its operational control is with the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The force was granted independent status through the ITBPF Act of 1992.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The ITBP’s institutional identity is unique among India’s armed forces.
- Statement 1 is correct; the ITBP is the premier force for high-altitude operations, with its personnel (Himveers) specifically trained for the extreme conditions of the Himalayas, ranging up to 18,800 feet.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the ITBP, like all Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), is entirely under the Ministry of Home Affairs for both administrative and operational control. It is not under the Ministry of Defence (which controls the Army, Navy, and Air Force).
- Statement 3 is correct; after being raised under the CRPF Act in 1962, the force was eventually given its own independent legislative framework through the ITBPF Act in 1992. The ITBP’s motto, “Shaurya – Dridhata – Karma Nishtha,” guides its multi-faceted role, which includes guarding the 3,488 km border with China, conducting mountaineering rescues, and assisting in internal security.
- Their “One Border, One Force” mandate makes them the sole guardians of the Indo-Tibetan frontier, a role that requires constant vigilance and specialized survival skills in one of the world’s most challenging terrains.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The ITBP’s institutional identity is unique among India’s armed forces.
- Statement 1 is correct; the ITBP is the premier force for high-altitude operations, with its personnel (Himveers) specifically trained for the extreme conditions of the Himalayas, ranging up to 18,800 feet.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the ITBP, like all Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), is entirely under the Ministry of Home Affairs for both administrative and operational control. It is not under the Ministry of Defence (which controls the Army, Navy, and Air Force).
- Statement 3 is correct; after being raised under the CRPF Act in 1962, the force was eventually given its own independent legislative framework through the ITBPF Act in 1992. The ITBP’s motto, “Shaurya – Dridhata – Karma Nishtha,” guides its multi-faceted role, which includes guarding the 3,488 km border with China, conducting mountaineering rescues, and assisting in internal security.
- Their “One Border, One Force” mandate makes them the sole guardians of the Indo-Tibetan frontier, a role that requires constant vigilance and specialized survival skills in one of the world’s most challenging terrains.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport:
Statement-I: The Convention is a legally binding multilateral treaty that mandates State Parties to align their national legislation with the World Anti-Doping Code.
Statement-II: The Convention provides a legal framework for governments to harmonize anti-doping rules, as the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) Code itself only applies to sports organizations and not to sovereign states.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- The UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport, adopted in 2005, is indeed a legally binding treaty. Its primary necessity arises from a jurisdictional gap: while the WADA Code is the gold standard for anti-doping, WADA is a private law foundation. Consequently, its rules are directly binding only on sports organizations (like the International Olympic Committee (IOC)) and athletes, not on national governments. To ensure a global, uniform fight against doping, governments needed a mechanism to commit to these standards under international law.
- By ratifying this Convention, States commit to adopting measures consistent with the Code. This includes restricting the availability of performance-enhancing substances, facilitating doping controls, and supporting education.
- Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I because the Convention acts as the bridge that allows governments to enforce the WADA Code within their domestic legal systems. India’s recent re-election as Vice-Chairperson of the Bureau for the Asia-Pacific (Group IV) at COP10 highlights its active role in this governance. The Convention has 192 State Parties, making it one of UNESCO’s most successful instruments. It also addresses emerging threats such as gene doping, ensuring the ethical integrity of sports remains protected as technology evolves.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport, adopted in 2005, is indeed a legally binding treaty. Its primary necessity arises from a jurisdictional gap: while the WADA Code is the gold standard for anti-doping, WADA is a private law foundation. Consequently, its rules are directly binding only on sports organizations (like the International Olympic Committee (IOC)) and athletes, not on national governments. To ensure a global, uniform fight against doping, governments needed a mechanism to commit to these standards under international law.
- By ratifying this Convention, States commit to adopting measures consistent with the Code. This includes restricting the availability of performance-enhancing substances, facilitating doping controls, and supporting education.
- Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I because the Convention acts as the bridge that allows governments to enforce the WADA Code within their domestic legal systems. India’s recent re-election as Vice-Chairperson of the Bureau for the Asia-Pacific (Group IV) at COP10 highlights its active role in this governance. The Convention has 192 State Parties, making it one of UNESCO’s most successful instruments. It also addresses emerging threats such as gene doping, ensuring the ethical integrity of sports remains protected as technology evolves.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following best describes the “23for23” initiative launched by the Government of India?
Correct
Solution: C
- The “#23for23” campaign was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to coincide with International Snow Leopard Day on October 23, 2025. This initiative is primarily an awareness and community engagement Unlike traditional top-down conservation models, “23for23” seeks to democratize conservation by involving the general public in understanding the challenges faced by snow leopards and their high-altitude habitats.
- The campaign is significant because snow leopards are notoriously difficult to track, earning them the nickname “Ghost of the Mountains.” By fostering a sense of national pride and responsibility, the government aims to protect the fragile Himalayan ecosystem. This initiative also supports the broader goals of the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Programme (GSLEP).
- It emphasizes that the survival of the snow leopard is inextricably linked to the socio-economic well-being of local mountain communities and the security of water resources for millions of people downstream. The timing of the campaign was also used to highlight the results of the first-ever National Snow Leopard Census, which utilized advanced camera-trapping and genetic analysis to estimate a population of 718 individuals across India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The “#23for23” campaign was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to coincide with International Snow Leopard Day on October 23, 2025. This initiative is primarily an awareness and community engagement Unlike traditional top-down conservation models, “23for23” seeks to democratize conservation by involving the general public in understanding the challenges faced by snow leopards and their high-altitude habitats.
- The campaign is significant because snow leopards are notoriously difficult to track, earning them the nickname “Ghost of the Mountains.” By fostering a sense of national pride and responsibility, the government aims to protect the fragile Himalayan ecosystem. This initiative also supports the broader goals of the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Programme (GSLEP).
- It emphasizes that the survival of the snow leopard is inextricably linked to the socio-economic well-being of local mountain communities and the security of water resources for millions of people downstream. The timing of the campaign was also used to highlight the results of the first-ever National Snow Leopard Census, which utilized advanced camera-trapping and genetic analysis to estimate a population of 718 individuals across India.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pilot Whales (Globicephala):
- They are classified as “Endangered” on the IUCN Red List due to frequent mass strandings.
- They are characterized by a matrilineal social structure where males stay in their mother’s pod for life.
- They are found across various oceanic regions, including the Indian Ocean near India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Pilot whales are fascinating marine mammals that belong to the dolphin family (Delphinidae).
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Despite the tragic visibility of mass strandings, such as the recent event at Twilight Beach in New Zealand, pilot whales are currently classified as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List. This status reflects their relatively stable global population across two species: the Short-finned and Long-finned pilot whales.
- Statement 2 is correct: They exhibit an extremely rare and highly evolved social structure known as matrilineal pods. In these groups, social bonds are so strong that offspring, including adult males, often remain with their mothers for their entire lives. This “tight-knit” behavior is ironically thought to be a factor in mass strandings, as the entire pod may follow a sick or disoriented leader onto the shore.
- Statement 3 is correct: Pilot whales have a global distribution. While Long-finned species prefer colder waters, Short-finned pilot whales thrive in tropical and warm-temperate waters, including the Indian Ocean.
- They are deep divers, reaching depths of up to 1,000 meters to hunt for squid. Their conservation is also supported by international frameworks like CITES Appendix II and the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).
Incorrect
Solution: B
Pilot whales are fascinating marine mammals that belong to the dolphin family (Delphinidae).
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Despite the tragic visibility of mass strandings, such as the recent event at Twilight Beach in New Zealand, pilot whales are currently classified as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List. This status reflects their relatively stable global population across two species: the Short-finned and Long-finned pilot whales.
- Statement 2 is correct: They exhibit an extremely rare and highly evolved social structure known as matrilineal pods. In these groups, social bonds are so strong that offspring, including adult males, often remain with their mothers for their entire lives. This “tight-knit” behavior is ironically thought to be a factor in mass strandings, as the entire pod may follow a sick or disoriented leader onto the shore.
- Statement 3 is correct: Pilot whales have a global distribution. While Long-finned species prefer colder waters, Short-finned pilot whales thrive in tropical and warm-temperate waters, including the Indian Ocean.
- They are deep divers, reaching depths of up to 1,000 meters to hunt for squid. Their conservation is also supported by international frameworks like CITES Appendix II and the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following migratory species are covered under the Central Asian Mammals Initiative (CAMI)?
- Saiga Antelope
- Persian Leopard
- Bukhara Deer
- Asiatic Lion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
CAMI is a specialized framework under the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) that focuses on 17 species of mammals that inhabit the vast landscapes of Central Asia.
- 1, 2, and 3 are correct: The list includes the Saiga Antelope, known for its unique nose and mass migrations; the Persian Leopard, which roams across mountain ranges; and the Bukhara Deer, which is native to the riverine forests of the region. Other species include the Snow Leopard, Argali sheep, and the Wild Camel.
- 4 is incorrect: The Asiatic Lion is not part of CAMI. Asiatic lions are found exclusively in the Gir National Park and surrounding areas of Gujarat, India. They are not considered “migratory” in the transboundary sense that CAMI addresses, nor is their habitat part of the Central Asian steppe, desert, or mountain ecosystems covered by the initiative.
- CAMI’s significance lies in protecting the “Serengeti of the North.” The initiative aims to remove physical barriers, such as border fences, that prevent these species from following their ancient migratory paths in search of food and water. India, as a range state for species like the Snow Leopard, plays a crucial role in this regional conservation effort.
Incorrect
Solution: C
CAMI is a specialized framework under the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) that focuses on 17 species of mammals that inhabit the vast landscapes of Central Asia.
- 1, 2, and 3 are correct: The list includes the Saiga Antelope, known for its unique nose and mass migrations; the Persian Leopard, which roams across mountain ranges; and the Bukhara Deer, which is native to the riverine forests of the region. Other species include the Snow Leopard, Argali sheep, and the Wild Camel.
- 4 is incorrect: The Asiatic Lion is not part of CAMI. Asiatic lions are found exclusively in the Gir National Park and surrounding areas of Gujarat, India. They are not considered “migratory” in the transboundary sense that CAMI addresses, nor is their habitat part of the Central Asian steppe, desert, or mountain ecosystems covered by the initiative.
- CAMI’s significance lies in protecting the “Serengeti of the North.” The initiative aims to remove physical barriers, such as border fences, that prevent these species from following their ancient migratory paths in search of food and water. India, as a range state for species like the Snow Leopard, plays a crucial role in this regional conservation effort.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsIn the context of quantum computing and the “Willow” processor, the term “Quantum Advantage” refers to:
Correct
Solution: D
- Quantum Advantage (often used interchangeably with “Quantum Supremacy”) is a technical milestone in the field of computing. It does not mean that quantum computers are “better” than classical computers for all tasks; rather, it identifies a specific problem where the quantum machine’s computational complexity is vastly lower than that of the most powerful supercomputers.
- In the case of Google’s “Willow” processor using the Quantum Echoes Algorithm, it performed a calculation 13,000 times faster than a classical system. This task involved simulating complex quantum interference patterns—a task that is “exponentially hard” for classical bits (0 or 1) but native to qubits (which exist in superposition).
However, we must note that quantum advantage is not a one-time event but a continuous threshold. As classical algorithms get better, quantum processors must scale up their qubit count and error correction to maintain this lead. This milestone is a critical step toward “Fault-Tolerant Quantum Computing,” which will eventually revolutionize fields like cryptanalysis and drug discovery.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Quantum Advantage (often used interchangeably with “Quantum Supremacy”) is a technical milestone in the field of computing. It does not mean that quantum computers are “better” than classical computers for all tasks; rather, it identifies a specific problem where the quantum machine’s computational complexity is vastly lower than that of the most powerful supercomputers.
- In the case of Google’s “Willow” processor using the Quantum Echoes Algorithm, it performed a calculation 13,000 times faster than a classical system. This task involved simulating complex quantum interference patterns—a task that is “exponentially hard” for classical bits (0 or 1) but native to qubits (which exist in superposition).
However, we must note that quantum advantage is not a one-time event but a continuous threshold. As classical algorithms get better, quantum processors must scale up their qubit count and error correction to maintain this lead. This milestone is a critical step toward “Fault-Tolerant Quantum Computing,” which will eventually revolutionize fields like cryptanalysis and drug discovery.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes the functioning of the Intrusion Detection System (IDS) implemented by the Northeast Frontier Railway?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a prime example of frugal and effective innovation in wildlife conservation. Instead of relying on expensive aerial surveillance or potentially intrusive repellent devices, the system leverages existing optical fiber cable (OFC) These cables are buried alongside the railway tracks and function as a continuous sensor.
- When a large animal like an elephant walks near the track, it creates minute vibrations in the ground. These seismic disturbances cause “micro-bends” in the fiber optic cable, which alters the way light pulses travel through it.
- The system’s AI backend analyzes these light signal patterns in real-time to distinguish between an elephant’s footfall and other vibrations like those from a passing vehicle or weather events. Once a potential intrusion is identified, the system sends an instant alert to the station master and the locomotive pilot (driver). This allows the train to be slowed down or stopped before it reaches the elephant’s location.
The implementation in the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) is particularly critical because the region contains some of India’s most sensitive elephant corridors. By moving from reactive measures to proactive, sensor-based alerts, the system significantly reduces the “human-wildlife conflict” and ensures that the railway network does not become a death trap for endangered megafauna.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a prime example of frugal and effective innovation in wildlife conservation. Instead of relying on expensive aerial surveillance or potentially intrusive repellent devices, the system leverages existing optical fiber cable (OFC) These cables are buried alongside the railway tracks and function as a continuous sensor.
- When a large animal like an elephant walks near the track, it creates minute vibrations in the ground. These seismic disturbances cause “micro-bends” in the fiber optic cable, which alters the way light pulses travel through it.
- The system’s AI backend analyzes these light signal patterns in real-time to distinguish between an elephant’s footfall and other vibrations like those from a passing vehicle or weather events. Once a potential intrusion is identified, the system sends an instant alert to the station master and the locomotive pilot (driver). This allows the train to be slowed down or stopped before it reaches the elephant’s location.
The implementation in the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) is particularly critical because the region contains some of India’s most sensitive elephant corridors. By moving from reactive measures to proactive, sensor-based alerts, the system significantly reduces the “human-wildlife conflict” and ensures that the railway network does not become a death trap for endangered megafauna.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsMatch the following categories of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) with their implications:
List Type Primary Implication 1. Grey List A. Jurisdictions called for “Counter-Measures” to protect the financial system. 2. Black List B. Jurisdictions under “Increased Monitoring” with an active action plan. 3. FATF Recommendations C. Globally accepted framework for combating money laundering. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- The terminology used by the FATF is crucial for understanding its regulatory bite.
- The “Grey List” (1-B) is for countries that have committed to addressing their deficiencies within a specific timeframe. They are not yet pariahs, but they are under a “watch,” which impacts their credit ratings and ease of doing business.
- The “Black List” (2-A) is the most severe designation. It is reserved for high-risk jurisdictions that are non-cooperative. When a country is blacklisted, the FATF doesn’t just monitor them; it urges all global financial institutions to apply enhanced due diligence and, in extreme cases, counter-measures (like banning transactions), effectively cutting the country off from the global financial grid.
- The “FATF Recommendations” (3-C) are the “40 Recommendations” that form the international standard. These are not just guidelines; they are the benchmarks against which a country’s legal and financial systems are evaluated during Mutual Evaluations. They cover everything from how a country defines “money laundering” to how its banks report suspicious transactions.
- Compliance with these recommendations is a prerequisite for a country to be seen as a “clean” place for international investment. Together, these three elements—the standards, the monitoring (Grey), and the enforcement (Black)—create a powerful transnational governance mechanism that forces countries to align their domestic laws with international security needs.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The terminology used by the FATF is crucial for understanding its regulatory bite.
- The “Grey List” (1-B) is for countries that have committed to addressing their deficiencies within a specific timeframe. They are not yet pariahs, but they are under a “watch,” which impacts their credit ratings and ease of doing business.
- The “Black List” (2-A) is the most severe designation. It is reserved for high-risk jurisdictions that are non-cooperative. When a country is blacklisted, the FATF doesn’t just monitor them; it urges all global financial institutions to apply enhanced due diligence and, in extreme cases, counter-measures (like banning transactions), effectively cutting the country off from the global financial grid.
- The “FATF Recommendations” (3-C) are the “40 Recommendations” that form the international standard. These are not just guidelines; they are the benchmarks against which a country’s legal and financial systems are evaluated during Mutual Evaluations. They cover everything from how a country defines “money laundering” to how its banks report suspicious transactions.
- Compliance with these recommendations is a prerequisite for a country to be seen as a “clean” place for international investment. Together, these three elements—the standards, the monitoring (Grey), and the enforcement (Black)—create a powerful transnational governance mechanism that forces countries to align their domestic laws with international security needs.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), consider the following statements:
- It is a permanent intergovernmental body of the United Nations established to promote the integration of developing countries into the global economy.
- It is the primary body responsible for adjudicating trade disputes between member nations under international law.
- It provides technical assistance to developing countries specifically in the areas of debt management and investment policy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- UNCTAD, established in 1964, plays a unique role within the UN system by linking trade, finance, and investment with sustainable development.
- Statement 1 is correct as its mandate is specifically geared toward helping “Global South” nations navigate the complexities of globalization.
- Unlike the World Trade Organization (WTO), UNCTAD is more of a think-tank and a forum for consensus-building rather than a rule-setting organization. This leads to Statement 2 being incorrect: UNCTAD does not adjudicate trade disputes; that function is the exclusive domain of the WTO’s Dispute Settlement Body.
- Statement 3 is correct, it highlights UNCTAD’s practical utility. It provides specialized programs like the Debt Management and Financial Analysis System (DMFAS), which helps developing countries manage their sovereign debt portfolios. This technical role is why UNCTAD is a key supporter of the New Sevilla Forum on Debt. By providing research and policy analysis, UNCTAD empowers developing nations to negotiate more effectively in international forums.
It bridges the gap between high-level policy and on-the-ground implementation, focusing on Financing for Development (FfD) and the 2030 Agenda. Its headquarters in Geneva allow it to work closely with other international economic organizations while maintaining its focus on the developmental aspects of trade.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- UNCTAD, established in 1964, plays a unique role within the UN system by linking trade, finance, and investment with sustainable development.
- Statement 1 is correct as its mandate is specifically geared toward helping “Global South” nations navigate the complexities of globalization.
- Unlike the World Trade Organization (WTO), UNCTAD is more of a think-tank and a forum for consensus-building rather than a rule-setting organization. This leads to Statement 2 being incorrect: UNCTAD does not adjudicate trade disputes; that function is the exclusive domain of the WTO’s Dispute Settlement Body.
- Statement 3 is correct, it highlights UNCTAD’s practical utility. It provides specialized programs like the Debt Management and Financial Analysis System (DMFAS), which helps developing countries manage their sovereign debt portfolios. This technical role is why UNCTAD is a key supporter of the New Sevilla Forum on Debt. By providing research and policy analysis, UNCTAD empowers developing nations to negotiate more effectively in international forums.
It bridges the gap between high-level policy and on-the-ground implementation, focusing on Financing for Development (FfD) and the 2030 Agenda. Its headquarters in Geneva allow it to work closely with other international economic organizations while maintaining its focus on the developmental aspects of trade.
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