The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: Type 1 Diabetes is generally classified as an autoimmune condition that is currently not preventable.
Statement-II: Type 1 Diabetes occurs when the body develops a resistance to insulin due to sedentary lifestyles and obesity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement-I is correct because Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the pancreas’s failure to produce insulin due to an autoimmune response where the body’s immune system attacks insulin-producing cells. Because the exact triggers are unknown, it cannot currently be prevented and requires lifelong insulin therapy.
- Statement-II is incorrect because it describes the pathology of Type 2 Diabetes, not Type 1. Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance—where the body cannot effectively use the insulin it produces—and is strongly associated with lifestyle factors like obesity and lack of physical activity. While Type 2 was historically seen as an “adult-onset” disease, the Ministry of Health notes its increasing prevalence in children.
- The new national framework mandates universal screening for all children from birth to 18 years. It also provides a free care package including insulin, glucometers, and strips at public health centers. The goal is to create an integrated continuum of care from community screening to advanced medical colleges, reducing childhood mortality through early detection and standardized protocols.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement-I is correct because Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the pancreas’s failure to produce insulin due to an autoimmune response where the body’s immune system attacks insulin-producing cells. Because the exact triggers are unknown, it cannot currently be prevented and requires lifelong insulin therapy.
- Statement-II is incorrect because it describes the pathology of Type 2 Diabetes, not Type 1. Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance—where the body cannot effectively use the insulin it produces—and is strongly associated with lifestyle factors like obesity and lack of physical activity. While Type 2 was historically seen as an “adult-onset” disease, the Ministry of Health notes its increasing prevalence in children.
- The new national framework mandates universal screening for all children from birth to 18 years. It also provides a free care package including insulin, glucometers, and strips at public health centers. The goal is to create an integrated continuum of care from community screening to advanced medical colleges, reducing childhood mortality through early detection and standardized protocols.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cell Broadcast System (CBS) launched by the Ministry of Communications, consider the following statements:
- Unlike SMS, CBS is a one-to-many service that avoids network congestion by not requiring a queuing process.
- The system requires the sender to have the specific phone numbers of all recipients within the target area.
- It can deliver multilingual alerts that appear as pop-ups with a distinct loud siren tone.
- The technology is an indigenous solution developed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Cell Broadcast System (CBS) is a transformative tool for disaster management in India.
- Statement 1 is correct; it functions by broadcasting messages from cell towers to all connected handsets simultaneously, bypassing the individual “queuing” that slows down standard SMS during emergencies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because CBS is network independent regarding the recipient. It does not need the recipient’s phone number; it simply reaches every device within the signal radius of the targeted Base Transceiver Stations (BTS). This is vital for reaching tourists or people passing through a disaster zone.
- Statement 3 is correct; to ensure maximum impact, alerts appear as priority notifications that bypass other apps, use a unique loud siren, and support regional languages and “read-aloud” features for the visually impaired.
- Statement 4 is correct; the system is an indigenous technology developed by C-DOT. This ensures national data security and a solution tailored to India’s unique geographic and linguistic diversity. By shifting disaster response from reactive to proactive, CBS provides critical lead time during flash floods, earthquakes, or gas leaks, potentially saving thousands of lives through real-time, geo-targeted communication.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Cell Broadcast System (CBS) is a transformative tool for disaster management in India.
- Statement 1 is correct; it functions by broadcasting messages from cell towers to all connected handsets simultaneously, bypassing the individual “queuing” that slows down standard SMS during emergencies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because CBS is network independent regarding the recipient. It does not need the recipient’s phone number; it simply reaches every device within the signal radius of the targeted Base Transceiver Stations (BTS). This is vital for reaching tourists or people passing through a disaster zone.
- Statement 3 is correct; to ensure maximum impact, alerts appear as priority notifications that bypass other apps, use a unique loud siren, and support regional languages and “read-aloud” features for the visually impaired.
- Statement 4 is correct; the system is an indigenous technology developed by C-DOT. This ensures national data security and a solution tailored to India’s unique geographic and linguistic diversity. By shifting disaster response from reactive to proactive, CBS provides critical lead time during flash floods, earthquakes, or gas leaks, potentially saving thousands of lives through real-time, geo-targeted communication.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsRegarding the invasive species Prosopis juliflora, consider the following statements:
- It was originally introduced in India to provide green cover and fuel in arid landscapes.
- The plant exhibits ‘allelopathy,’ a process where it promotes the growth of indigenous grasses to stabilize the soil.
- Its deep root system allows it to reach groundwater as deep as 50 meters, surviving extreme droughts.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Prosopis juliflora, known as a “green desert” in many parts of India, has a complex ecological profile.
- Statement 1 is correct; the British introduced it in the late 19th century to combat desertification and provide a source of fuelwood in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; Allelopathy in Prosopis juliflora actually refers to its ability to release chemicals into the soil that inhibit or prevent the growth of nearby native vegetation. This helps the species crowd out indigenous flora, leading to a loss of biodiversity and reducing fodder for local livestock.
- Statement 3 is correct; its remarkable survival in arid zones is due to its taproots, which can penetrate up to 50 meters to tap into deep groundwater reserves. While this makes it drought-resistant, it also leads to the significant depletion of groundwater levels in water-stressed regions. Despite being an invasive alien species, it has economic potential as a bio-energy feedstock.
- The Kandla Port pilot project aims to convert its biomass into bio-methanol, providing a source of clean maritime fuel and creating livelihood opportunities for local communities involved in its collection. It remains a primary source of high-quality charcoal for many rural households.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Prosopis juliflora, known as a “green desert” in many parts of India, has a complex ecological profile.
- Statement 1 is correct; the British introduced it in the late 19th century to combat desertification and provide a source of fuelwood in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; Allelopathy in Prosopis juliflora actually refers to its ability to release chemicals into the soil that inhibit or prevent the growth of nearby native vegetation. This helps the species crowd out indigenous flora, leading to a loss of biodiversity and reducing fodder for local livestock.
- Statement 3 is correct; its remarkable survival in arid zones is due to its taproots, which can penetrate up to 50 meters to tap into deep groundwater reserves. While this makes it drought-resistant, it also leads to the significant depletion of groundwater levels in water-stressed regions. Despite being an invasive alien species, it has economic potential as a bio-energy feedstock.
- The Kandla Port pilot project aims to convert its biomass into bio-methanol, providing a source of clean maritime fuel and creating livelihood opportunities for local communities involved in its collection. It remains a primary source of high-quality charcoal for many rural households.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is NOT correct regarding ‘Mission Drishti’?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement (c) is incorrect because Mission Drishti was developed by GalaxEye, a Bengaluru-based private space-tech startup, not ISRO. While ISRO provides the ecosystem and IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center) facilitated the mission, the satellite itself is a private sector achievement. This distinction is important as it highlights the success of the “NewSpace” movement in India, where private players are moving beyond components to full satellite constellations.
- Statement (a) is correct as its unique selling point is the OptoSAR technology.
- Statement (b) is correct; it uses a wide range of spectral bands: X-Band for SAR, and several optical bands like PAN, RGB, NIR, Coastal Blue, and Red Edge, allowing for detailed vegetation analysis and maritime monitoring.
- Statement (d) is correct; a 4-day revisit frequency is highly effective for tracking changes in infrastructure, monitoring borders, or assessing disaster-hit areas in near real-time. At 190 kg, it sets a record for India’s largest private EO satellite. Its launch on a SpaceX Falcon 9 from Vandenberg, USA, also showcases the global nature of modern Indian space missions.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement (c) is incorrect because Mission Drishti was developed by GalaxEye, a Bengaluru-based private space-tech startup, not ISRO. While ISRO provides the ecosystem and IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center) facilitated the mission, the satellite itself is a private sector achievement. This distinction is important as it highlights the success of the “NewSpace” movement in India, where private players are moving beyond components to full satellite constellations.
- Statement (a) is correct as its unique selling point is the OptoSAR technology.
- Statement (b) is correct; it uses a wide range of spectral bands: X-Band for SAR, and several optical bands like PAN, RGB, NIR, Coastal Blue, and Red Edge, allowing for detailed vegetation analysis and maritime monitoring.
- Statement (d) is correct; a 4-day revisit frequency is highly effective for tracking changes in infrastructure, monitoring borders, or assessing disaster-hit areas in near real-time. At 190 kg, it sets a record for India’s largest private EO satellite. Its launch on a SpaceX Falcon 9 from Vandenberg, USA, also showcases the global nature of modern Indian space missions.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsThe Lipulekh Pass, recently in the news, provides a gateway for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra. This pass is located at the tri-junction of:
Correct
Solution: A
- The Lipulekh Pass is a strategic mountain pass located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is situated at the tri-junction of India, Nepal, and China. This geographic location is the root of the current diplomatic sensitivity. While India has historically used this pass for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra and recently constructed a road to facilitate easier travel, Nepal claims that the pass falls within its territory (specifically the Kalapani-Limpiyadhura-Lipulekh area).
- The yatra destination—Mount Kailash and Lake Mansarovar—is entirely within the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, but the access routes are through Indian territory. The Ministry of External Affairs organizes the journey, which is a major point of cultural and diplomatic engagement.
- The other major route is through the Nathu La Pass in Sikkim, which is motorable but involves a much longer trek through the Tibetan plateau. Eligibility for the yatra is strictly for Indian citizens aged 18–70. The yatra is conducted with the support of the Kumaon Mandal Vikas Nigam (KMVN) and paramilitary forces like the ITBP, ensuring safety in the rugged, high-altitude terrain exceeding 15,000 feet.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The Lipulekh Pass is a strategic mountain pass located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is situated at the tri-junction of India, Nepal, and China. This geographic location is the root of the current diplomatic sensitivity. While India has historically used this pass for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra and recently constructed a road to facilitate easier travel, Nepal claims that the pass falls within its territory (specifically the Kalapani-Limpiyadhura-Lipulekh area).
- The yatra destination—Mount Kailash and Lake Mansarovar—is entirely within the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, but the access routes are through Indian territory. The Ministry of External Affairs organizes the journey, which is a major point of cultural and diplomatic engagement.
- The other major route is through the Nathu La Pass in Sikkim, which is motorable but involves a much longer trek through the Tibetan plateau. Eligibility for the yatra is strictly for Indian citizens aged 18–70. The yatra is conducted with the support of the Kumaon Mandal Vikas Nigam (KMVN) and paramilitary forces like the ITBP, ensuring safety in the rugged, high-altitude terrain exceeding 15,000 feet.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Military Exercise CINBAX-II 2026, consider the following statements:
- It is a multilateral exercise involving several ASEAN nations to promote maritime security in the South China Sea.
- The exercise focuses on joint training at the company level for operations in semi-urban environments.
- The primary objective is to align capabilities for counter-terrorism operations under UN peacekeeping frameworks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect; CINBAX-II is not a multilateral exercise, nor does it focus on maritime security in the South China Sea. It is a bilateral military exercise specifically between the Indian Army and the Royal Cambodian Army.
- Statement 2 is correct; the training is conducted at the company level and emphasizes sharing operational experiences for semi-urban and sub-conventional environments. These are the typical settings for modern insurgencies and peacekeeping missions.
- Statement 3 is correct; the primary aim is to enhance interoperability and synergy, particularly for counter-terrorism operations that UN peacekeeping forces often encounter. This is reinforced by the fact that the exercise is conducted under Chapter VII of the UN Mandate.
- The 2026 edition, held in Cambodia’s Kampong Speu Province, includes tactical drills on drone operations, sniper tactics, and mortar handling. Such engagements reflect strengthening defense ties and a mutual understanding of regional security challenges, helping both nations contribute more effectively to international peace and security efforts.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect; CINBAX-II is not a multilateral exercise, nor does it focus on maritime security in the South China Sea. It is a bilateral military exercise specifically between the Indian Army and the Royal Cambodian Army.
- Statement 2 is correct; the training is conducted at the company level and emphasizes sharing operational experiences for semi-urban and sub-conventional environments. These are the typical settings for modern insurgencies and peacekeeping missions.
- Statement 3 is correct; the primary aim is to enhance interoperability and synergy, particularly for counter-terrorism operations that UN peacekeeping forces often encounter. This is reinforced by the fact that the exercise is conducted under Chapter VII of the UN Mandate.
- The 2026 edition, held in Cambodia’s Kampong Speu Province, includes tactical drills on drone operations, sniper tactics, and mortar handling. Such engagements reflect strengthening defense ties and a mutual understanding of regional security challenges, helping both nations contribute more effectively to international peace and security efforts.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Padma Doree’ initiative:
- It is a cross-regional textile project that merges the Eri silk traditions of Northeast India with the Chanderi weaving of Madhya Pradesh.
- The initiative is executed by the Ministry of Textiles in collaboration with the Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED).
- Eri silk, a primary component of this initiative, is termed ‘Ahimsa silk’ because the silkworms are allowed to complete their metamorphosis before the cocoons are processed.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct: Padma Doree is a unique cultural fusion initiative that bridges the textile heritage of Northeast India and Central India. Specifically, it combines the Eri silk (indigenous to the Northeast) with the Chanderi weaving techniques of Madhya Pradesh. This fusion aims to create a sustainable textile ecosystem that appeals to the global luxury market.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The executing agency is the North Eastern Handicrafts and Handlooms Development Corporation (NEHHDC), not TRIFED or the Ministry of Textiles directly, although they operate under relevant government frameworks.
- Statement 3 is correct: Eri silk is globally recognized as Ahimsa (non-violent) silk. Traditional silk production often involves boiling the cocoons while the pupae are still inside. In contrast, Eri silk is harvested after the moth leaves the cocoon, ensuring no harm to the living organism.
- The project signifies national integration by linking the “fiber and finesse” of two geographically distant regions. It fosters direct artisan engagement, encouraging collaborative design and economic empowerment. By modernizing indigenous knowledge, it ensures that traditional crafts remain relevant in the contemporary sustainable fashion
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct: Padma Doree is a unique cultural fusion initiative that bridges the textile heritage of Northeast India and Central India. Specifically, it combines the Eri silk (indigenous to the Northeast) with the Chanderi weaving techniques of Madhya Pradesh. This fusion aims to create a sustainable textile ecosystem that appeals to the global luxury market.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The executing agency is the North Eastern Handicrafts and Handlooms Development Corporation (NEHHDC), not TRIFED or the Ministry of Textiles directly, although they operate under relevant government frameworks.
- Statement 3 is correct: Eri silk is globally recognized as Ahimsa (non-violent) silk. Traditional silk production often involves boiling the cocoons while the pupae are still inside. In contrast, Eri silk is harvested after the moth leaves the cocoon, ensuring no harm to the living organism.
- The project signifies national integration by linking the “fiber and finesse” of two geographically distant regions. It fosters direct artisan engagement, encouraging collaborative design and economic empowerment. By modernizing indigenous knowledge, it ensures that traditional crafts remain relevant in the contemporary sustainable fashion
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: A minor child holding an Indian passport is prohibited from holding the passport of any other country under the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026.
Statement II: The Indian legal framework does not recognize or permit dual nationality for any category of Indian citizens.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct: The Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026, introduced a specific proviso to Rule 3, which explicitly mandates that a minor child cannot hold a foreign passport while possessing an Indian passport. This was aimed at closing legal loopholes where minors were occasionally found to hold travel documents from two different nations simultaneously.
- Statement II is correct: India maintains a strict policy of single citizenship. While the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) status provides certain privileges (like multi-purpose lifelong visas), it is frequently misinterpreted as dual citizenship. Legally, an OCI holder remains a foreign national.
- Statement II provides the legal rationale for Statement I. Because India does not allow dual nationality, the rules regarding minors must be stringent to prevent the accidental or intentional acquisition of dual travel documents, which would contradict the fundamental constitutional principle of single citizenship. The 2026 amendment transitions the OCI management to a fully digital framework (e-OCI), streamlining identity services while reinforcing these core legal boundaries to prevent misuse.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct: The Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026, introduced a specific proviso to Rule 3, which explicitly mandates that a minor child cannot hold a foreign passport while possessing an Indian passport. This was aimed at closing legal loopholes where minors were occasionally found to hold travel documents from two different nations simultaneously.
- Statement II is correct: India maintains a strict policy of single citizenship. While the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) status provides certain privileges (like multi-purpose lifelong visas), it is frequently misinterpreted as dual citizenship. Legally, an OCI holder remains a foreign national.
- Statement II provides the legal rationale for Statement I. Because India does not allow dual nationality, the rules regarding minors must be stringent to prevent the accidental or intentional acquisition of dual travel documents, which would contradict the fundamental constitutional principle of single citizenship. The 2026 amendment transitions the OCI management to a fully digital framework (e-OCI), streamlining identity services while reinforcing these core legal boundaries to prevent misuse.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsRegarding the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), consider the following statements:
- It was established as a statutory body under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, to oversee nuclear safety.
- The board possesses the authority to enforce safety standards for both Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) facilities and non-DAE radiation installations, such as medical X-ray units.
- The AERB functions independently of the agencies responsible for the development and promotion of nuclear power in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The AERB was constituted by the President of India in 1983 under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, not the Environment (Protection) Act, though it does assist the government in framing rules under the latter. Its origins trace back to recommendations from the Meckoni and Karkhanawala Committees which sought an independent oversight body.
- Statement 2 is correct: The AERB’s mandate is broad, covering the entire spectrum of ionizing radiation. This includes high-level nuclear power plants like Kudankulam and industrial/medical applications of radiation. It issues licenses and consents for various stages, including the First Pour of Concrete (FPC) and equipment erection.
- Statement 3 is correct: A critical feature of the AERB is its functional independence. It draws experts from diverse academic and governmental institutions to ensure that safety reviews are technically rigorous and not influenced by the developmental targets of the DAE. The Safety Review Committee for Operating Plants (SARCOP) is an integral part of this oversight mechanism, monitoring the performance of operating units to ensure they pose no undue risk to public health or the environment.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The AERB was constituted by the President of India in 1983 under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, not the Environment (Protection) Act, though it does assist the government in framing rules under the latter. Its origins trace back to recommendations from the Meckoni and Karkhanawala Committees which sought an independent oversight body.
- Statement 2 is correct: The AERB’s mandate is broad, covering the entire spectrum of ionizing radiation. This includes high-level nuclear power plants like Kudankulam and industrial/medical applications of radiation. It issues licenses and consents for various stages, including the First Pour of Concrete (FPC) and equipment erection.
- Statement 3 is correct: A critical feature of the AERB is its functional independence. It draws experts from diverse academic and governmental institutions to ensure that safety reviews are technically rigorous and not influenced by the developmental targets of the DAE. The Safety Review Committee for Operating Plants (SARCOP) is an integral part of this oversight mechanism, monitoring the performance of operating units to ensure they pose no undue risk to public health or the environment.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Canine Distemper Virus (CDV):
- It is caused by a double-stranded DNA virus belonging to the Paramyxoviridae family.
- The virus primarily spreads through aerosol droplets and can affect the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and central nervous systems.
- Domestic dogs often act as the primary vector for spilling the infection into wildlife populations like tigers and lions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect: CDV is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus, not a DNA virus. It belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family, which also includes the viruses responsible for measles and mumps in humans.
- Statement 2 is correct: It is a multi-systemic disease. Initial symptoms include fever and respiratory discharge, progressing to gastrointestinal issues (vomiting/diarrhea). In severe cases, it attacks the central nervous system, causing “chewing-gum fits,” paralysis, and “hard pad disease” (crusting of the nose and paw pads).
- Statement 3 is correct: CDV is a classic example of a spillover disease. Domestic dogs at the forest-village interface serve as the reservoir. When wildlife like tigers or lions come into contact with infected dogs or contaminated fluids, the virus can decimate their populations.
- There is currently no specific antiviral cure for CDV; treatment is purely supportive, focusing on managing symptoms and secondary infections. Prevention relies heavily on maintaining a vaccination buffer among local stray dog populations (herd immunity) to protect endangered wildlife in reserves like Kanha.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: In addition to complete burials, the practice of Fractional Burial (where bones were collected and buried after the body had been exposed to the elements or wild animals) has been identified at Mohenjo-daro.
- Statement 2 is correct: Lothal is famous for the discovery of Coupled Burials (joint burials), where a male and a female were buried together in the same grave. Some historians have debated if this suggests an early form of Sati, though there is no definitive consensus.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The use of wooden coffins was not a common feature across all centers. It was an exceptional practice, with the most notable evidence found at Harappa (Cemetery R-31), where a body was found in a coffin made of rosewood.
- Statement 4 is correct: At Ropar (Punjab), a unique burial was discovered where a dog was buried with a human. This practice is strikingly similar to the Neolithic burials found at Burzahom in Kashmir, suggesting a possible cultural link or shared tradition.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect: CDV is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus, not a DNA virus. It belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family, which also includes the viruses responsible for measles and mumps in humans.
- Statement 2 is correct: It is a multi-systemic disease. Initial symptoms include fever and respiratory discharge, progressing to gastrointestinal issues (vomiting/diarrhea). In severe cases, it attacks the central nervous system, causing “chewing-gum fits,” paralysis, and “hard pad disease” (crusting of the nose and paw pads).
- Statement 3 is correct: CDV is a classic example of a spillover disease. Domestic dogs at the forest-village interface serve as the reservoir. When wildlife like tigers or lions come into contact with infected dogs or contaminated fluids, the virus can decimate their populations.
- There is currently no specific antiviral cure for CDV; treatment is purely supportive, focusing on managing symptoms and secondary infections. Prevention relies heavily on maintaining a vaccination buffer among local stray dog populations (herd immunity) to protect endangered wildlife in reserves like Kanha.
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