DAY – 57 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

I. LUPEX — Correct.
The Lunar Polar Exploration (LUPEX) mission is a collaborative project between ISRO and JAXA. It aims to explore the Moon’s south polar region, particularly focusing on the presence, distribution, and physical characteristics of water ice. The mission intends to deploy a lander and rover to conduct in-situ analysis, which is crucial for future lunar habitation and resource utilisation.

II. SPHEREx — Correct.
SPHEREx (Spectro-Photometer for the History of the Universe, Epoch of Reionization and Ices Explorer) is a NASA mission designed to carry out an all-sky spectral survey in the near-infrared range. Its objectives include studying the origin of the universe, mapping the distribution of galaxies, investigating cosmic inflation, and identifying key molecular compounds such as water and organic molecules in interstellar space.

III. JUICE — Incorrect.
The Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE), launched by the European Space Agency (ESA), is intended to study Jupiter and its three large icy moons—Ganymede, Callisto, and Europa. However, the mission is not designed to land on Europa. Instead, it will perform detailed flybys of Europa and eventually enter orbit around Ganymede, making it the first spacecraft to orbit a moon other than Earth’s.

IV. XPoSat — Correct.
XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India’s first dedicated space mission to study X-ray polarisation. It focuses on understanding the emission mechanisms, geometry, and physical processes occurring in bright X-ray sources such as black holes, neutron stars, and pulsars. It marks a significant advancement in high-energy astrophysics research for India.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

I. Correct.
Bio-foundries are highly automated, integrated facilities that enable rapid, high-throughput design, construction, and testing of genetically engineered biological systems. They combine robotics, artificial intelligence, and synthetic biology tools to accelerate the engineering of microbes, enzymes, and biomolecules for diverse applications.

II. Correct.
Bio-foundries operate on the Design–Build–Test–Learn (DBTL) cycle, which is central to modern synthetic biology. This iterative framework allows systematic optimization—designing genetic constructs, building them using automated systems, testing their performance, and learning from data to refine subsequent designs. Automation significantly enhances speed, reproducibility, and scalability.

III. Incorrect.
Bio-foundries are not limited to ecological conservation. In fact, a major objective—especially under policies like Bio-E3—is to enable industrial biotechnology, including the production of specialty chemicals, biofuels, pharmaceuticals, and biomaterials. Thus, their applications extend significantly into manufacturing and commercial biotechnology.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

I. High-power microwaves — Correct.
High-power microwave (HPM) systems are well-established Directed Energy Weapons that emit intense electromagnetic pulses to disrupt or destroy electronic circuits. They are particularly effective against drones, communication systems, and radar infrastructure.

II. High-energy lasers — Correct.
High-energy laser (HEL) systems represent the most operationally advanced category of DEWs. They use concentrated beams of electromagnetic radiation to heat, burn, or structurally damage targets such as missiles, UAVs, and sensors with high precision.

III. Particle beams — Correct.
Particle beam weapons accelerate charged or neutral particles to extremely high velocities. These beams can penetrate targets and cause damage at a microscopic or atomic level. Although largely experimental, they are a recognised component of the DEW spectrum in defence science.

IV. Sonic/Ultrasonic waves — Correct.
Sonic or ultrasonic systems, often referred to as acoustic weapons, use directed sound energy to incapacitate, disorient, or deter targets. While traditionally classified under non-lethal or crowd-control technologies, broader strategic and technological frameworks include them within the ambit of Directed Energy Weapons, as they involve the controlled projection of energy (in the form of sound waves) to achieve a targeted operational effect.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The BPaLM regimen is a WHO-endorsed, shorter, all-oral therapeutic regimen for the treatment of Multi-Drug Resistant Tuberculosis (MDR-TB). It represents a significant shift from older, longer, and injectable-based regimens to more effective and patient-friendly treatment protocols. The acronym BPaLM denotes the combination of four specific anti-tubercular drugs:

• B — Bedaquiline
• Pa — Pretomanid
• L — Linezolid
• M — Moxifloxacin

This regimen is designed to improve treatment outcomes, reduce duration (typically around 6 months), and minimize toxicity compared to conventional MDR-TB therapies.

1. Bedaquiline — Correct.
   Bedaquiline is a novel anti-tubercular agent that inhibits the mycobacterial ATP synthase enzyme, thereby disrupting energy production in Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a cornerstone drug in modern MDR-TB regimens due to its potent bactericidal activity.
2. Pretomanid — Correct.
   Pretomanid belongs to the nitroimidazooxazine class and exhibits activity against both replicating and non-replicating bacilli. It enhances sterilizing activity within the regimen and is particularly effective in combination therapies such as BPaL and BPaLM.
3. Linezolid — Correct.
   Linezolid is an oxazolidinone antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria. It is highly effective against drug-resistant TB strains, although its use requires careful monitoring due to potential adverse effects such as peripheral neuropathy and bone marrow suppression.
4. Moxifloxacin — Correct.
   Moxifloxacin is a fluoroquinolone that inhibits DNA gyrase, thereby preventing bacterial replication. In the BPaLM regimen, it strengthens the bactericidal effect and contributes to shortening the treatment duration.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

I. Correct.
Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy is an advanced form of immunotherapy in which a patient’s own T-cells are extracted and genetically engineered in the laboratory to express specific receptors (CARs). These receptors enable the T-cells to recognise, bind to, and destroy cancer cells, particularly those expressing specific surface antigens.

II. Correct.
NexCAR19 is India’s first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy. It has been developed for the treatment of certain B-cell malignancies, especially B-cell lymphomas and leukemias, targeting the CD19 antigen present on malignant B-cells. It represents a major milestone in India’s biotechnology and cancer treatment capabilities.

III. Correct.
CAR-T cell therapy is often referred to as a “living drug” because the engineered T-cells, once infused into the patient, can proliferate within the body. This allows sustained immune response and long-term targeting of cancer cells, distinguishing it fundamentally from conventional treatments like chemotherapy or radiation.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

1. Exercise Desert Knight — Correct.
   Exercise Desert Knight is a trilateral air exercise involving India, France, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). It focuses on enhancing interoperability, joint air operations, and coordination among the participating air forces.
2. Exercise Vinbax — Correct.
   Exercise Vinbax is a bilateral military exercise between India and Vietnam, primarily conducted between their armies. It is aimed at improving coordination in peacekeeping operations and strengthening defence cooperation.

III. Exercise Cyclone — Correct.
Exercise Cyclone is a joint special forces exercise between India and Egypt. It focuses on counter-terrorism operations, special operations tactics, and enhancing military-to-military cooperation.

1. Exercise Dharma Guardian — Correct.
   Exercise Dharma Guardian is a bilateral army exercise between India and Japan, conducted annually to enhance interoperability, particularly in counter-terrorism operations in semi-urban environments.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement I — Correct.
The World Health Organization (WHO) has repeatedly highlighted concerns regarding ‘Disease X’ in its priority pathogen list and global health preparedness discussions. This reflects growing recognition of the risk posed by unknown pathogens that could trigger future pandemics.

Statement II — Correct.
‘Disease X’ is a conceptual placeholder used by WHO to denote the possibility that a serious international epidemic may be caused by a pathogen not yet identified or known to infect humans. It underscores the uncertainty inherent in emerging infectious diseases.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

I. Correct.
The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV), developed by Indian Space Research Organisation, is a three-stage launch vehicle using solid propulsion in all three stages, along with a liquid-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM). The VTM enables precise orbit injection by making fine adjustments to velocity and altitude after the main stages complete their burn.

II. Correct.
SSLV is specifically designed for on-demand launch capability for small satellites, with a payload capacity of approximately 500 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and around 300 kg to Sun-synchronous orbit. Its design emphasises flexibility, quick turnaround, and cost-effectiveness.

III. Incorrect.
This statement is contrary to the core design philosophy of SSLV. Unlike larger launch vehicles such as Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, SSLV is designed to minimise infrastructure requirements. It requires minimal launch pad facilities, reduced integration time, and a smaller team, making it suitable for rapid and responsive launch operations.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

I. Correct.
The LCA Tejas Mk-II is planned to be powered by the GE F414-INS6 turbofan engine, which offers substantially higher thrust (around 98 kN class) compared to the GE F404 engine used in earlier variants. This enhanced propulsion is critical for supporting increased payload, improved manoeuvrability, and better overall mission performance.

II. Correct.
The Mk-II is a significantly redesigned and heavier platform, often classified as a medium-weight fighter. It features greater internal fuel capacity, higher payload capability, and extended combat range compared to the Tejas Mk1A. The design also incorporates improved aerodynamics, enhanced survivability, and the ability to carry a wider range of advanced weapons and sensors.

III. Correct.
The Mk-II is intended to be equipped with an indigenous Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar, most notably the Uttam AESA radar developed by DRDO. This radar provides superior capabilities such as multi-target tracking, enhanced detection range, electronic warfare resilience, and improved situational awareness. Its integration reflects India’s progress toward greater self-reliance in advanced avionics.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

I. Antimony — Correct.
Antimony is widely used in flame retardants, especially in plastics and textiles, due to its ability to inhibit combustion. It is also used in lead-acid batteries to improve the hardness and durability of lead plates, making it an important mineral for energy storage systems.

II. Beryllium — Correct.
Beryllium is a lightweight, high-strength metal with excellent thermal stability, making it crucial in aerospace applications such as satellites and aircraft components. It is also used in defense electronics, including radar and communication systems, due to its superior electrical and thermal properties.

III. Germanium — Correct.
Germanium is an essential semiconductor material used in fiber optic systems to enhance signal transmission efficiency. It is also a key component in infrared optics and night vision devices, owing to its ability to transmit infrared radiation effectively.

IV. Tantalum — Correct.
Tantalum is highly valued for its corrosion resistance and biocompatibility. It is widely used in capacitors for smartphones and electronic devices, and in medical implants such as surgical instruments and prosthetics, due to its inert nature within the human body.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The time elapsed on the faulty clock from 8 a.m. on the first day to 1 p.m. on the following day is 29 hours (24 hours for a full day plus 5 hours from 8 a.m. to 1 p.m.).

The clock loses 10 minutes every 24 hours. This means that 23 hours and 50 minutes of the faulty clock represent 24 hours of true time.

23 hours 50 minutes = 143/6 hours.

True Time = (Total faulty hours) * (True ratio)

True Time = 29 * (24 / (143/6))

True Time = (29 * 24 * 6) / 143

True Time = 4176 / 143 = 29.2028 hours.

Converting the decimal to time: 29 hours + (0.2028 * 60 minutes) = 29 hours 12 minutes 10 seconds (approx).

Adding 29 hours and 12 minutes to 8 a.m. results in 1:12 p.m. the following day.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

We calculate the total number of odd days from Feb 15, 2012, to Feb 15, 2024 (a period of 12 years).

For such problems, leap years are counted based on their occurrence within the span of years.

Leap years in this period are: 2012, 2016, and 2020.
(Note: Feb 29, 2024 is excluded as the date is before it.)

Number of leap years = 3 → odd days = 3 × 2 = 6
Number of ordinary years = 12 − 3 = 9 → odd days = 9 × 1 = 9

Total odd days = 6 + 9 = 15

15 ÷ 7 leaves a remainder of 1

So, the day advances by 1 day:
Wednesday → Thursday

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Total students = 60.

Ratio of Girls to Boys = 2:1.

Boys = 20, Girls = 40.

Kamal’s rank is 17th, which means 16 students are ranked above him.

Of these 16 students, 9 are girls.

Number of boys ahead of Kamal = 16 – 9 = 7.

Total boys accounted for up to Kamal’s rank = 7 (ahead) + 1 (Kamal himself) = 8 boys.

Number of boys after Kamal = Total boys – Boys accounted for

Boys after Kamal = 20 – 8 = 12.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

To determine the linear arrangement, we merge the relative positions step-by-step:

1. G is between E and C: E – G – C.
2. F is between C and B: C – F – B.

Merging these at point C: E – G – C – F – B.

1. D is between A and E: A – D – E.

Integrating the final segment at point E:

A – D – E – G – C – F – B.

There are 7 persons in the row. The exact middle is the 4th position.

The person in the 4th position is G.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

The passage emphasizes that natural selection is bounded by “genetic architecture” (which represents biological history) and “environmental constraints.” The use of the word “tinkering” implies that evolution must work with existing biological structures rather than starting from zero to find an optimal solution.

Option (a) is incorrect as it contradicts the stated boundaries of genetic architecture.

Option (c) is incorrect because natural selection is still identified as the “primary mechanism.”

Option (d) is incorrect because the passage explicitly states evolution is “not a process of perfection.”

Option (b) is the most logical inference as it captures how the evolutionary process is constrained by both the organism’s past (genetics) and its present (environment).