DAY – 56 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES, ORGANISATIONS

Answer:    (D)

Explanation:

The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) has a comprehensive mandate to ensure that the use of ionizing radiation and nuclear energy in India does not cause undue risk to health and the environment. Its regulatory jurisdiction spans across various sectors:

Scope of AERB Regulation:

• Nuclear Power Projects and Operating Plants: From the site selection and construction phase to the final decommissioning of Nuclear Power Plants (NPPs).
• Medical Applications: This includes the regulation of Diagnostic X-ray equipment, Radiotherapy units used in cancer treatment, and Nuclear Medicine facilities.
• Industrial Applications: It covers Industrial Radiography (used for non-destructive testing), Food Irradiation plants (used for preservation), and the use of ionizing radiation in research.
• Nuclear Fuel Cycle Facilities: Regulation of uranium mines, ore processing plants, fuel fabrication facilities, and heavy water plants.
• Transport and Waste: It strictly regulates the transportation of radioactive materials across the country and the management of radioactive waste to ensure public safety.

Key Regulatory Functions:

• Consents and Licensing: Issuing licenses for the operation of any facility that handles radioactive substances.
• Safety Surveillance: Conducting periodic inspections to ensure compliance with safety standards.
• Standard Setting: Developing Safety Codes, Guides, and Manuals for nuclear and radiation safety.

Answer:    (B)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: Although the initiative targets rural development, it is designed and implemented by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Rural Development.
• Statement 2 is Correct: A core pillar of the initiative is utilizing the high-speed broadband backbone of BharatNet. It transforms this connectivity from just internet access into a functional platform for delivering healthcare, education, and governance.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Samriddh Gram initiative has indeed gained international recognition by being nominated for the WSIS (World Summit on the Information Society) Prizes 2026 in the Enabling Environment category.

Answer:    (A)

Explanation:

Answer:    (B)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is a non-governmental organization (NGO). It is not a statutory body (which would be created by an Act of Parliament) nor is it a government department. It is an autonomous research organization that often partners with the government.
• Statement 2 is Correct: It was founded on September 15, 1883, by eight residents of Mumbai (six Brits and two Indians). Today, it is one of the premier institutions in the Indian subcontinent for research in natural history, conservation, and biodiversity.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: The logo of the BNHS is the Great Hornbill (specifically the Great Pied Hornbill), inspired by William, a Great Hornbill that lived on the society’s premises from 1894 to 1920. The Great Indian Bustard is a different critically endangered bird, but it is not the society’s logo.

Answer:    (B)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The DRDO was formed in 1958 by the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO). However, it is not a statutory body (created by an Act of Parliament). It functions as an attached office under the Ministry of Defence.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The administrative structure of the DRDO is headed by the Secretary, Department of Defence Research and Development, who also acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the DRDO. This ensures direct coordination between research activities and the Ministry of Defence.
• Statement 3 is Correct: In late 2023, the government appointed a high-powered committee led by K. VijayRaghavan (former Principal Scientific Adviser) to review the functioning of the DRDO. The goal was to make the organization more results-oriented and to encourage greater participation from the private sector and academia in defence R&D.

Answer:    (B)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Launched in early 2024, the scheme aims to provide up to 300 units of free electricity every month to one crore (10 million) households across India by encouraging the installation of rooftop solar systems.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The scheme provides a substantial subsidy to make solar adoption affordable. For a typical 3 kW system, the subsidy covers roughly 40% of the benchmark cost. Specifically, it offers ₹30,000 per kW for the first 2 kW and ₹18,000 for the additional kW, totaling ₹78,000 for a 3 kW system.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: To avail of the benefits of free electricity, beneficiaries must have a net-metering connection. This allows the solar power generated to be fed back into the grid when not in use, and the 300 units free benefit is essentially realized through the offset of the export against the import from the DISCOM (Distribution Company).

Answer:     (C)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: The Green Credit Programme (GCP) was launched as part of the Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) It is a market-based mechanism that incentivizes individuals, communities, and private sector industries to undertake voluntary environmental actions by issuing Green Credits.
• Statement 2 is Correct: While the programme has identified eight sectors (including waste management, air pollution reduction, and sustainable building), the initial focus and the first set of detailed rules released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) centered primarily on Water Conservation and Afforestation (Tree Plantation).

Statement 3 is Correct: Unlike traditional carbon credits, Green Credits are independent. The rules provide for the establishment of a dedicated domestic exchange platform where these credits can be traded, allowing entities to meet their environmental obligations or corporate social responsibility (CSR) goals.

Answer:     (B)

Explanation:

While humans perceive language as words and sentences, Large Language Models (LLMs) like Gemini or GPT do not read in the same way. They break down text into smaller, manageable chunks called Tokens.

• Granularity: A token can be a whole word (e.g., apple), a part of a word (e.g., ing in running), or even a single punctuation mark or character.
• Numerical Transformation: Each token is assigned a unique numerical ID. The model performs complex mathematical calculations on these numbers to predict which token should logically come next in a sequence.
• The Cost of Language: In the AI economy, Tokenomics refers to the cost of these units. Because different languages are tokenized differently (complex scripts like Devanagari often require more tokens per word than English), the efficiency of a Tokenizer directly affects the speed and cost of the AI.

Answer:    (C)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: The Western Tragopan (Tragopan melanocephalus) is officially the state bird of Himachal Pradesh. It replaced the Monal in this capacity in 2007 to draw more attention to its conservation.
• Statement 2 is Correct: In local folklore, it is called ‘Jujurana’, which translates to King of Birds. According to legend, the bird was created by the Great Creator using the most beautiful feathers of every other bird in the forest.
• Statement 3 is Correct: During the courtship display in the breeding season, the male Western Tragopan inflates two fleshy blue lappets (horns) on its head and expands a colorful throat patch to attract females. This unique feature gives it the name horned pheasant.
• Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Western Tragopan is categorized as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered. While its population is small and fragmented (estimated between 2,500 and 3,500 individuals), it does not yet meet the criteria for the Critically Endangered category.

Answer:     (A)

Explanation:

• Maratha capture of Delhi (August 1760): Under the leadership of Sadashivrao Bhau, the Maratha forces captured Delhi from the Afghan agents. This was a significant strategic victory that boosted Maratha morale before the final confrontation.
• Maratha victory at Kunjpura (October 1760): After taking Delhi, the Marathas moved north and stormed the Afghan garrison at Kunjpura (on the banks of the Yamuna). They slaughtered the Afghan forces there and seized a large stash of food and money.
• Crossing of the Yamuna by Ahmad Shah Abdali (October 1760): Infuriated by the loss at Kunjpura, Abdali took a massive risk and crossed the flooded Yamuna at Baghpat. This brilliant tactical move allowed him to get behind the Maratha army, effectively cutting off their supply lines and communications with Delhi.
• Restoration of Maratha dominance under Peshwa Madhavrao (1771): Following the devastating defeat on January 14, 1761, the Marathas retreated to the Deccan. However, under the young and capable Peshwa Madhavrao, they rebuilt their strength and returned to North India a decade later to re-establish their authority.

Correct Answer: (c)

Detailed Solution:

From Statement 1: B is 3rd to the right of A (A _ _ B). E is 2nd to the left of B, which places E immediately to the right of A (A E _ B). Now, two people are between E and G. Case 1.1 (G is left of E): Following the relative string (G _ _ E), we get: G _ A E _ B. (6 positions). Case 1.2 (G is right of E): Following the relative string (E _ _ G), we get: A E _ B _ G. (6 positions). In both cases, we have only 6 positions defined. The 7th person could be at either the extreme left or extreme right. Thus, Statement 1 alone is insufficient.

From Statement 2: We have fragments: G _ F, C B, and D is next to E. Without the primary framework from Statement 1, we cannot determine the unique positions of all 7 people. Insufficient.

Combining Statements:

We apply the fragments from Statement 2 to the cases in Statement 1. In Case 1.1 (G _ A E _ B): F is 2nd to the right of G, filling the gap: G F A E _ B. C is immediate left of B: G F A E C B. D is a neighbor of E. The only available spot for D is to the right of B: G F A E C B D.

This uses all 7 people and places G at the extreme left. In Case 1.2 (A E _ B _ G): F is 2nd to the right of G. This would require an 8th position (A E _ B _ G _ F), which exceeds the 7-person limit. Conclusion: Both statements together provide a unique and valid arrangement.

Correct Answer: (c)

Detailed Solution:

To determine if X is divisible by 36, it must be divisible by 4 and 9 (as 4 and 9 are co-prime).

Statement 1: X is a multiple of 9. This does not confirm divisibility by 4. (e.g., if X = 18, No; if X = 36, Yes). Insufficient.

Statement 2: X/4 is even, so X/4 = 2k. This means X = 8k. Since X is a multiple of 8, it is necessarily divisible by 4. However, it does not confirm divisibility by 9. (e.g., if X = 8, No; if X = 72, Yes). Insufficient.

Combining Statements: X is divisible by 9 (from S1) and X is divisible by 8 (from S2). Since 8 and 9 are co-prime, X must be divisible by their LCM, which is 72. If X is a multiple of 72, it is fundamentally a multiple of 36 (since 72 = 36 * 2). Conclusion: We reach a definitive YES conclusion. Both statements together are sufficient.

Correct Answer: (d)

Detailed Solution:

1. Let point P be the origin (0, 0). Walking 10m North to Q puts Q at (0, 10).
2. At Q, the person is facing North. A 135-degree clockwise turn faces him toward the South-East (45 degrees below the positive x-axis).
3. Displacement Q to R: The distance is 10 * sqrt(2) m. Since the direction is South-East (45 degrees): x-displacement = 10 * sqrt(2) * cos 45° = 10 m (East) y-displacement = 10 * sqrt(2) * sin 45° = 10 m (South) New coordinates R = (0 + 10, 10 – 10) = (10, 0).
4. Turn at R: The person was facing South-East (135° CW from North). He turns 225° anticlockwise. New facing = 135° – 225° = -90°. A -90° bearing from North is exactly West.
5. R to S: He walks 10m West from (10, 0). New coordinates S = (10 – 10, 0) = (0, 0).
6. Shortest distance: Point S is exactly at Point P (0, 0). The distance is 0.

Correct Answer: (a)

Detailed Solution:

Let B be (0, 0).

1. A is 8m West of B: A = (-8, 0).
2. C is 4m South of B: C = (0, -4).
3. D is 4m East of C: D = (4, -4).
4. E is 7m North of D: E = (4, 3).
5. F is 12m West of E: F = (4 – 12, 3) = (-8, 3).

Final Position: A = (-8, 0) F = (-8, 3) Point F has the same x-coordinate as A but a higher y-coordinate. Thus, F is exactly 3 meters North of A.

Correct Answer: (c)

Detailed Solution:

Option (a) is a correct scientific principle mentioned in the text, but it is too narrow to be the primary inference of the whole passage, which also discusses policy.

Option (b) is incorrect because the passage argues that seeking total consensus (certainty) is a roadblock that leads to systemic risk, rather than preventing it.

Option (d) is an overgeneralization. The text states the cost of inaction can exceed risks in certain contexts, but using always makes it logically unsound.

Option (c) is the most comprehensive and critical inference. It bridges both the scientific and policy examples to conclude that waiting for perfect information (certainty/consensus) is not necessary for progress or effective decision-making.