DAY – 55 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY and AGRICULTURE

Answer: (c)

Explanation

Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is a mechanism through which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ensures that a portion of bank credit is directed toward specific sectors that impact large segments of the population and the weaker sections of society.

• Statement 1 is correct: For all Domestic Commercial Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign Banks with 20 branches and above, the overall target for Priority Sector Lending is 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher.
• Statement 2 is correct: Within the overall 40% PSL target, the RBI mandates sub-targets for specific sectors. For Agriculture, the target is set at 18% of ANBC. Within this 18%, a sub-target (currently 10%) is specifically prescribed for Small and Marginal Farmers.
• Statement 3 is correct: Agricultural lending is broadly classified into three categories: Farm Credit, Agriculture Infrastructure, and Ancillary Activities. Loans to Agri-clinics and Agri-business Centres (ACABC) are considered as “Ancillary Activities” and are eligible for classification under the agriculture target of PSL.

Hence, all three statements are correct.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

Sugar beet (Beta vulgaris) is a major source of the world’s sugar, providing approximately 20-25% of global sugar production, with the remainder coming from sugarcane.

• Statement 1 is correct: Sugar beet is a root crop that thrives in temperate climates. It requires fertile soil and a moderate supply of water. The major producers are the European Union, the United States, Russia, and Ukraine. Unlike sugarcane (a perennial grass), sugar beet is a biennial plant.
• Statement 2 is correct: Sugar beet is highly efficient for biofuel production. The sugar extracted from the beet can be fermented to produce ethanol. This ethanol is chemically identical to that produced from sugarcane or corn and can be blended with petrol to reduce carbon emissions.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: This is a conceptual fallacy. Like almost all green plants, sugar beet is photosynthetic and requires sunlight to produce sugar in its leaves, which is then stored in the root. While “Tropical Sugar Beet” varieties have been developed to grow in warmer climates (like parts of India), they are grown in open fields, not in closed environments without sunlight. They actually require bright sunshine for optimal sugar accumulation.

In India, sugar beet is being explored as an alternative or supplementary crop to sugarcane, especially in states like Maharashtra, Punjab, and Rajasthan. Because it has a shorter duration and requires less water than sugarcane, it can be grown in the “gap” between other crop cycles.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

The method described is Vertical Farming. It is a modern agricultural practice designed to maximize output in limited spaces, particularly in urban areas.

• Vertical Farming: This involves growing crops in vertically stacked layers or on vertically inclined surfaces. It often utilizes Controlled-Environment Agriculture (CEA), where technology is used to manage environmental factors such as light (often using LEDs), humidity, temperature, and gases. Common soilless techniques used include:
  • Hydroponics: Growing plants in a nutrient-rich water solution.
  • Aeroponics: Growing plants with roots suspended in the air, misted with nutrients.
  • Aquaponics: A symbiotic system combining fish farming (aquaculture) with hydroponics.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

Transgenic crops, commonly known as Genetically Modified (GM) crops, are plants whose DNA has been altered using genetic engineering techniques to include specific traits such as pest resistance, herbicide tolerance, or enhanced nutritional value.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: India does permit the commercial cultivation of at least one transgenic crop: Bt cotton. Bt cotton has been commercially grown in India since 2002 and currently accounts for over 90% of the country’s cotton acreage. While other crops like GM mustard (DMH-11) have received environmental clearance from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), their full-scale commercialization has faced various legal and regulatory hurdles.
• Statement 2 is correct: Transgenic technology involves the insertion of “foreign” genes (often from entirely different species like bacteria or viruses) into a plant’s genome. This creates new gene combinations that are not achievable through conventional breeding (which relies on crossing related species) or natural evolution. For example, Bt cotton contains a gene from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Transgenic crops are not inherently more toxic. In fact, many are engineered to be less reliant on external chemical pesticides. While there are concerns about potential allergens or “gene flow” (the spread of genes to wild relatives), they do not “always” proliferate rapidly. In many cases, the additional energy required to maintain the transgene can actually make the plant less competitive in the wild compared to natural varieties, unless the specific trait (like herbicide resistance) provides a distinct survival advantage in that environment.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The agricultural price policy in India is managed through several institutions and mechanisms to ensure food security and price stability for farmers.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was set up in 1965 under the Food Corporations Act, 1964. Its establishment was based on the recommendations of the L.K. Jha Committee (the Foodgrains Prices Committee of 1964), which also led to the creation of the Agricultural Prices Commission (now CACP).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced by the Central Government for the country as a whole. While the cost of production (A2+FL) varies from state to state due to different resource endowments and labor costs, the CACP uses an All-India weighted average cost to recommend a uniform MSP applicable throughout India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Agricultural wage rates are a critical component of the “cost of production.” When the CACP calculates the cost (A2), it explicitly includes expenses incurred on hired human labor (wages). Additionally, the value of family labor (FL) is also factored in. Therefore, changes in agricultural wages directly influence the final MSP determination.

Since the Union Budget 2018-19, the government has committed to fixing the MSP at a level of at least 150% of the all-India weighted average cost of production (A2 + FL).

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The primary distinction between Biofortification and Food Fortification lies in the point at which the nutritional value of the food is enhanced.

• Statement 1 is correct: The fundamental difference between the two approaches is the stage of intervention. Biofortification happens at the agricultural source, whereas traditional food fortification happens at the industrial processing stage.
• Statement 2 is correct:
  • Biofortification is the process of increasing the density of vitamins and minerals in a crop through plant breeding (selective or cross-breeding), genetic modification, or agronomic practices (such as specialized fertilizers) while the plant is still growing in the field.
  • Food Fortification (or industrial fortification) involves adding micronutrients (like iodine in salt or iron in flour) to food products manually after they have been harvested and are being processed for consumption.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

The agricultural procurement and pricing system in India is a complex interplay between government-set floors and market dynamics.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a guaranteed price at which the government offers to buy crops from farmers.
  • If the market price falls below the MSP (often due to a bumper harvest), the government intervenes to procure the crop at the MSP to protect farmers from losses.
  • However, if the market price is higher than the MSP (due to high demand or low supply), farmers are free to sell their produce in the open market to earn a higher profit. In such cases, government procurement typically drops.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the central nodal agency, it does not work alone. Procurement is a joint effort between the Central Government and State Governments.
  • Several states operate under the Decentralized Procurement Scheme (DCP), where state agencies procure, store, and distribute foodgrains themselves on behalf of the Centre.
  • Additionally, other agencies like NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) handle the procurement of pulses and oilseeds, and the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) handles cotton.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the APEDA Act, 1985. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is responsible for the promotion and development of the export of its “Scheduled Products.”

• Items 1, 2, 3, and 5 are included: The first schedule of the APEDA Act lists a wide range of products, including:
  • Fruits, vegetables, and their products.
  • Meat and meat products.
  • Poultry and poultry products.
  • Dairy products.
  • Confectionery, biscuits, and bakery products.
  • Honey, jaggery, and sugar products.
  • Alcoholic and non-alcoholic beverages.
  • Cereal products, Groundnuts, peanuts, and walnuts.
  • Pickles, papads, and chutneys.
• Item 4 is excluded: Herbal and medicinal plants are not under the jurisdiction of APEDA. Their export promotion and development are handled by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) and the Export Promotion Council for Handicrafts (EPCH) or specialized bodies under the Ministry of AYUSH.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

The Buffer Stock policy is a cornerstone of India’s food security system, managed by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) to ensure a steady supply of foodgrains for the Public Distribution System (PDS) and to stabilize market prices.

• Statement 1 is correct: Buffer stock acts as a safety net. It is maintained to ensure food security during periods of low production (shortages), to stabilize prices by releasing stocks during lean seasons, and to provide immediate relief during emergencies like droughts or floods.
• Statement 2 is correct: The formal Foodgrain Stocking Norms for the Central Pool are specifically prescribed for rice and wheat. While the government also maintains a separate “Strategic Reserve” of pulses and has started building a buffer for onions, the standard “buffer stock” referred to in the context of foodgrain security historically and primarily encompasses rice and wheat.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The minimum buffer norms are not fixed annually, nor are they determined by the Ministry of Agriculture. They are fixed by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by the Prime Minister. These norms are typically revised once every few years and are set for four specific dates in the year (January 1, April 1, July 1, and October 1) to account for the seasonal nature of harvests.

The total stock in the Central Pool consists of two components:

1. Operational Stock: Needed for the monthly distribution under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and other welfare schemes.
2. Strategic Reserve: Kept aside for extreme emergencies and long-term food security.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

The Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) was launched in December 2000 to provide food security to the most vulnerable sections of the population. It is a sub-component of the Public Distribution System (PDS) in India.

• Statement 1 is correct: The AAY was specifically designed to target the “poorest of the poor” out of the Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. It provides foodgrains at highly subsidized rates (originally ₹2 per kg for wheat and ₹3 per kg for rice). Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013, these families are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per month.
• Statement 2 is correct: The criteria for identifying AAY families have been expanded over time. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are automatically eligible and given priority for coverage under the scheme, along with other vulnerable groups like landless agricultural laborers, marginal farmers, and households headed by widows or terminally ill persons.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The time elapsed on the faulty clock from 8 a.m. on the first day to 1 p.m. on the following day is 29 hours (24 hours for a full day plus 5 hours from 8 a.m. to 1 p.m.).

The clock loses 10 minutes every 24 hours. This means that 23 hours and 50 minutes of the faulty clock represent 24 hours of true time.

23 hours 50 minutes = 143/6 hours.

True Time = (Total faulty hours) * (True ratio)

True Time = 29 * (24 / (143/6))

True Time = (29 * 24 * 6) / 143

True Time = 4176 / 143 = 29.2028 hours.

Converting the decimal to time: 29 hours + (0.2028 * 60 minutes) = 29 hours 12 minutes 10 seconds (approx).

Adding 29 hours and 12 minutes to 8 a.m. results in 1:12 p.m. the following day.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

We calculate the total number of odd days from Feb 15, 2012, to Feb 15, 2024 (a period of 12 years).

For such problems, leap years are counted based on their occurrence within the span of years.

Leap years in this period are: 2012, 2016, and 2020.
(Note: Feb 29, 2024 is excluded as the date is before it.)

Number of leap years = 3 → odd days = 3 × 2 = 6
Number of ordinary years = 12 − 3 = 9 → odd days = 9 × 1 = 9

Total odd days = 6 + 9 = 15

15 ÷ 7 leaves a remainder of 1

So, the day advances by 1 day:
Wednesday → Thursday

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Total students = 60.

Ratio of Girls to Boys = 2:1.

Boys = 20, Girls = 40.

Kamal’s rank is 17th, which means 16 students are ranked above him.

Of these 16 students, 9 are girls.

Number of boys ahead of Kamal = 16 – 9 = 7.

Total boys accounted for up to Kamal’s rank = 7 (ahead) + 1 (Kamal himself) = 8 boys.

Number of boys after Kamal = Total boys – Boys accounted for

Boys after Kamal = 20 – 8 = 12.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

To determine the linear arrangement, we merge the relative positions step-by-step:

1. G is between E and C: E – G – C.
2. F is between C and B: C – F – B.

Merging these at point C: E – G – C – F – B.

1. D is between A and E: A – D – E.

Integrating the final segment at point E:

A – D – E – G – C – F – B.

There are 7 persons in the row. The exact middle is the 4th position.

The person in the 4th position is G.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

The passage emphasizes that natural selection is bounded by “genetic architecture” (which represents biological history) and “environmental constraints.” The use of the word “tinkering” implies that evolution must work with existing biological structures rather than starting from zero to find an optimal solution.

Option (a) is incorrect as it contradicts the stated boundaries of genetic architecture.

Option (c) is incorrect because natural selection is still identified as the “primary mechanism.”

Option (d) is incorrect because the passage explicitly states evolution is “not a process of perfection.”

Option (b) is the most logical inference as it captures how the evolutionary process is constrained by both the organism’s past (genetics) and its present (environment).