Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
Statement-I: The Presiding Officer of a House acts as a statutory tribunal while deciding on matters of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
Statement-II: The decision of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification is final and remains outside the ambit of judicial review to preserve legislative independence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Tenth Schedule, introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985, seeks to curb political defection.
- Statement-I is correct because the Supreme Court, in the landmark Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), clarified that when the Speaker or Chairman adjudicates a disqualification petition, they function not merely as a presiding officer but as a quasi-judicial tribunal. This distinction is vital as it subjects their conduct to specific legal standards of fairness and impartiality.
- Statement-II is incorrect. While the Tenth Schedule originally aimed to make the Speaker’s decision final and beyond the reach of courts, the Supreme Court struck down this specific provision. The Court ruled that since the Speaker acts as a tribunal, their decisions are subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides, perversity, or violation of constitutional mandate. This ensures a system of checks and balances, preventing the arbitrary use of power by the Presiding Officer. The power of judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and cannot be taken away even by a constitutional amendment.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Tenth Schedule, introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985, seeks to curb political defection.
- Statement-I is correct because the Supreme Court, in the landmark Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), clarified that when the Speaker or Chairman adjudicates a disqualification petition, they function not merely as a presiding officer but as a quasi-judicial tribunal. This distinction is vital as it subjects their conduct to specific legal standards of fairness and impartiality.
- Statement-II is incorrect. While the Tenth Schedule originally aimed to make the Speaker’s decision final and beyond the reach of courts, the Supreme Court struck down this specific provision. The Court ruled that since the Speaker acts as a tribunal, their decisions are subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides, perversity, or violation of constitutional mandate. This ensures a system of checks and balances, preventing the arbitrary use of power by the Presiding Officer. The power of judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and cannot be taken away even by a constitutional amendment.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
The term “Orange Economy” is frequently discussed in the context of:
Correct
Solution: C
- The Orange Economy, also known as the Creative Economy, refers to the economic potential of industries centered on creativity, culture, and innovation. Unlike traditional resource-based economies, the Orange Economy relies on intellectual property and human talent. It encompasses a wide array of sectors including design, visual arts, film, animation, gaming, and digital media.
- The core philosophy is to transform cultural expression into internationally scalable and reusable resources. By focusing on “orange” sectors, countries can diversify their economic base beyond manufacturing or agriculture. This model is particularly relevant in the digital age, where immersive storytelling and VFX have become multi-billion dollar industries. It emphasizes that creativity is an infinite resource that can drive sustainable growth while preserving cultural heritage. It is distinct from the Green Economy (sustainability) or the Silver Economy (elderly care). Governments are increasingly recognizing this sector as a driver for high-value job creation and soft power.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Orange Economy, also known as the Creative Economy, refers to the economic potential of industries centered on creativity, culture, and innovation. Unlike traditional resource-based economies, the Orange Economy relies on intellectual property and human talent. It encompasses a wide array of sectors including design, visual arts, film, animation, gaming, and digital media.
- The core philosophy is to transform cultural expression into internationally scalable and reusable resources. By focusing on “orange” sectors, countries can diversify their economic base beyond manufacturing or agriculture. This model is particularly relevant in the digital age, where immersive storytelling and VFX have become multi-billion dollar industries. It emphasizes that creativity is an infinite resource that can drive sustainable growth while preserving cultural heritage. It is distinct from the Green Economy (sustainability) or the Silver Economy (elderly care). Governments are increasingly recognizing this sector as a driver for high-value job creation and soft power.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- An independent member of a House becomes disqualified only if they join any political party after six months of their election.
- A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within the first six months of taking their seat.
- The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) protected a “split” in a political party if one-third of the members moved to a new group.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect because an independent member is disqualified if they join any political party at any time after the election; there is no six-month grace period for them.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because a nominated member is allowed to join a political party within the first six months of taking their seat without penalty; they only face disqualification if they join after that six-month period.
- Statement 3 is incorrect regarding the current status of the law. While the original 52nd Amendment did protect a “split” (one-third members), the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 actually deleted the provision that protected a one-third split. The law was strengthened to prevent frequent floor-crossing by making it mandatory for at least two-thirds of the members to agree to a merger to avoid disqualification. These nuances are frequently tested to check an aspirant’s conceptual clarity regarding the evolution of the Anti-Defection Law.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect because an independent member is disqualified if they join any political party at any time after the election; there is no six-month grace period for them.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because a nominated member is allowed to join a political party within the first six months of taking their seat without penalty; they only face disqualification if they join after that six-month period.
- Statement 3 is incorrect regarding the current status of the law. While the original 52nd Amendment did protect a “split” (one-third members), the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 actually deleted the provision that protected a one-third split. The law was strengthened to prevent frequent floor-crossing by making it mandatory for at least two-thirds of the members to agree to a merger to avoid disqualification. These nuances are frequently tested to check an aspirant’s conceptual clarity regarding the evolution of the Anti-Defection Law.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
With reference to critical minerals, consider the following statements regarding the strategic objectives of Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL):
- To address India’s meager resource base for minerals like Germanium, Tungsten, and Cobalt.
- To improve resource efficiency and find substitutes for critical minerals through R&D.
- To establish agreements with foreign state-owned enterprises for the steady flow of raw materials.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- India has a very limited domestic resource base for 12 strategic minerals, including Germanium, Tungsten, Cobalt, and Lithium. Securing these is vital for high-tech sectors, defense, and the transition to a green economy.
- Statement 1 is correct as KABIL was specifically formed to bridge this gap through overseas acquisitions.
- Statement 2 is correct because KABIL is not just about mining; it also focuses on Research and Development (R&D). This includes finding technological substitutes for critical minerals and improving resource efficiency and recycling, which are essential for long-term mineral security.
- Statement 3 is also correct. KABIL’s operational model involves actively identifying assets and establishing agreements with foreign state-owned enterprises. This ensures a supply-side assurance and a steady flow of raw materials back to India, protecting the domestic industry from global price volatility or supply chain disruptions. By focusing on countries like Argentina for Lithium, KABIL is instrumental in supporting the domestic EV sector. The company acts under the aegis of the Ministry of Mines, focusing on minerals that are essential for the next generation of industrial growth and environmental sustainability.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- India has a very limited domestic resource base for 12 strategic minerals, including Germanium, Tungsten, Cobalt, and Lithium. Securing these is vital for high-tech sectors, defense, and the transition to a green economy.
- Statement 1 is correct as KABIL was specifically formed to bridge this gap through overseas acquisitions.
- Statement 2 is correct because KABIL is not just about mining; it also focuses on Research and Development (R&D). This includes finding technological substitutes for critical minerals and improving resource efficiency and recycling, which are essential for long-term mineral security.
- Statement 3 is also correct. KABIL’s operational model involves actively identifying assets and establishing agreements with foreign state-owned enterprises. This ensures a supply-side assurance and a steady flow of raw materials back to India, protecting the domestic industry from global price volatility or supply chain disruptions. By focusing on countries like Argentina for Lithium, KABIL is instrumental in supporting the domestic EV sector. The company acts under the aegis of the Ministry of Mines, focusing on minerals that are essential for the next generation of industrial growth and environmental sustainability.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Which one of the following best describes the primary objective of ‘Exercise Dweep Shakti’ conducted in 2026?
Correct
Solution: B
- Exercise Dweep Shakti is a high-intensity Tri-Service joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. Its primary focus is the protection of India’s strategic island territories and maritime frontiers, particularly in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
- The exercise is conducted under the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC), which holds the distinction of being India’s only theatre command. The drill is significant because it tests the synergy and interoperability between the three wings of the armed forces during complex operations like amphibious assaults and beach landings. Modern warfare elements, such as swarming drones and electronic warfare suites, are integrated to simulate contemporary threats.
By landing heavy equipment like tanks on simulated hostile shores, the forces refine their rapid-response mechanisms. This exercise serves as a deterrent against maritime threats in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and demonstrates India’s resolve to defend its “unsinkable aircraft carriers”—the island chains that dominate the regional sea lines of communication. The successful conclusion of the 2026 edition underscores India’s evolving doctrine of integrated maritime dominance.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Exercise Dweep Shakti is a high-intensity Tri-Service joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. Its primary focus is the protection of India’s strategic island territories and maritime frontiers, particularly in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
- The exercise is conducted under the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC), which holds the distinction of being India’s only theatre command. The drill is significant because it tests the synergy and interoperability between the three wings of the armed forces during complex operations like amphibious assaults and beach landings. Modern warfare elements, such as swarming drones and electronic warfare suites, are integrated to simulate contemporary threats.
By landing heavy equipment like tanks on simulated hostile shores, the forces refine their rapid-response mechanisms. This exercise serves as a deterrent against maritime threats in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and demonstrates India’s resolve to defend its “unsinkable aircraft carriers”—the island chains that dominate the regional sea lines of communication. The successful conclusion of the 2026 edition underscores India’s evolving doctrine of integrated maritime dominance.
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