DAY – 53 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY and AGRICULTURE

Answer:    (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Alpha diversity is the species diversity within a specific site, community, or ecosystem. It is usually expressed by the number of species (species richness) in that particular area.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: This description actually belongs to Gamma diversity. Beta diversity represents the differentiation between ecosystems. It measures the rate at which species composition changes as one moves from one habitat to another (turnover).
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: This description belongs to Beta diversity. Gamma diversity is the measure of the overall diversity for the entire region. It is the total species richness of all the different communities found within a large geographical landscape.

Answer:    (d)

Explanation:

• The Himalayas: This includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, and China). It is home to diverse ecosystems ranging from alluvial grasslands to subtropical broadleaf forests.
• Indo-Burma Region: This hotspot encompasses the North-eastern India (excluding Assam and the Gangetic Plain, but including parts of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura), and extends into Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, and Southern China.
• Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: This chain of mountains runs along the western coast of India. Due to its high rainfall and isolation, it possesses a massive degree of endemism in flora, fauna, and amphibians.
• Sundaland: While largely centered in Southeast Asia (Indonesia, Malaysia), this hotspot includes the Nicobar Islands in India. It is characterized by its tropical rainforests and immense marine biodiversity.

Answer:    (b)

Explanation:

• An Ecotone is a transitional area or a junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. It is a zone of tension where the conditions of both adjacent communities overlap.
  • Examples: Mangrove forests (between marine and terrestrial ecosystems), grasslands (between forests and deserts), and estuaries (between freshwater and saltwater).
• Characteristics: It may be narrow (like a riverbank) or quite wide (like a forest-grassland transition). It often contains organisms from both overlapping communities and some species that are unique to the transition zone itself.
• The Edge Effect refers to the ecological phenomenon where the variety and density of species are greater in the ecotone than in either of the flanking communities.
• Edge Species: Organisms that occur primarily or most abundantly in this transition zone are called edge species. For example, in the transition between a forest and a field, certain bird species may thrive because they can access the nesting cover of the forest and the food sources of the field simultaneously.

Answer:    (c)

Explanation:

• Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6): This is one of the most potent greenhouse gases known. It is used in electrical transmission equipment and has a GWP of approximately 23,500. It remains in the atmosphere for thousands of years.
• Nitrous Oxide (N2O): Primarily emitted from agricultural and industrial activities, it has a GWP of approximately 273. It is significantly more effective at trapping heat than methane or CO2.
• Methane (CH4): While it has a shorter atmospheric lifetime than CO2, it is much more efficient at trapping radiation. Its GWP is approximately 27–30.
• Water Vapour: While water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas and responsible for the bulk of the natural greenhouse effect, it is typically not assigned a GWP value in regulatory frameworks. This is because its concentration is controlled by temperature (feedback loop) rather than direct human emissions. In any ranking of potential per ton of added gas, it ranks the lowest.

Answer:   (c)

Explanation:

• Melting of Arctic permafrost (Positive Feedback): As the Earth warms, permafrost (frozen ground) melts, releasing trapped methane and carbon dioxide. These greenhouse gases trap more heat, leading to further warming and more melting.
• Sea-ice loss and Ocean absorption (Positive Feedback): This is known as the Ice-Albedo Feedback. White ice reflects sunlight (high albedo); dark ocean water absorbs it (low albedo). As ice melts, the dark water absorbs more heat, which raises temperatures and melts more ice.
• Evaporation and Cloud cover (Negative Feedback): While water vapor itself is a greenhouse gas, higher evaporation can lead to increased low-level cloud cover. These clouds reflect incoming solar radiation back into space (increasing the Earth’s albedo), which has a cooling effect that offsets the initial warming.

4. Forest dieback (Positive Feedback): Forests normally act as carbon sinks by absorbing CO2. However, climate-induced drought and heat can cause massive tree mortality (dieback). The decaying trees release stored carbon back into the atmosphere, accelerating the greenhouse effect.

Answer:    (b)

Explanation:

• Gross Primary Productivity (GPP): This is the total amount of solar energy captured by green plants (producers) through photosynthesis. It is the gross income of the ecosystem before any expenses are paid.
• Respiration (R): Plants are living organisms that need energy to stay alive, grow, and reproduce. They consume a portion of the energy they capture through the process of cellular respiration.

Net Primary Productivity (NPP): This is the energy that remains after the plants have met their own respiratory needs. It is the net profit that is actually stored as dry organic matter (biomass) in the plant’s body (leaves, stems, roots).

Answer:   (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Instead, it is guided by the principles of natural justice. This allows the tribunal to be more flexible and efficient in its functioning compared to traditional civil courts.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The NGT Act mandates that the tribunal shall make an endeavor to dispose of applications or appeals finally within six months of the filing of the same. This provision ensures the speedy justice that the tribunal was designed for.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Any person aggrieved by an award, decision, or order of the NGT may file an appeal to the Supreme Court of India within 90 days from the date of communication of the order.

Answer:    (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is the parent legislation for creating Protected Areas like National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. In contrast, the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, does not explicitly mention the term Eco-Sensitive Zone, but the government uses the broad powers under Section 3 of the EPA to notify these buffer zones around Protected Areas to regulate industrial activity.
• Statement 2 is Correct: A core feature of the WPA is its classification of wild animals and plants into different Schedules (recently rationalized in 2022) to determine their level of legal protection. The EPA, however, is known as umbrella legislation designed to coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities, specifically focusing on pollution control, hazardous waste management, and environmental clearances.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: This is a common point of confusion. While the 42nd Amendment Act (1976) moved Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds from the State List to the Concurrent List, the Acts themselves were not moved. The WPA (1972) was originally enacted by Parliament under Article 252 (at the request of states), and the EPA (1986) was enacted under Article 253 to implement international agreements (Stockholm Conference).

Answer:    (d)

Explanation:

The Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, have significantly broadened the definition of a ‘Bulk Waste Generator’ by moving beyond just waste volume to include resource consumption and land footprint. This ensures that large-scale entities (like industrial parks, large townships, and commercial complexes) take direct responsibility for the waste they produce.

• Criterion 1 is Correct: Any entity generating more than 100 kg of waste per day is categorized as a bulk generator. This is a carryover from earlier regulations but remains a primary threshold.
• Criterion 2 is Correct: The 2026 rules introduce a resource-based metric: consuming more than 40,000 liters of water per day. This targets large facilities that may have a high environmental footprint even if their solid waste weight varies.
• Criterion 3 is Correct: The rules also include a spatial metric: having an area of more than 20,000 sq. m. This ensures that large physical establishments are brought under the regulatory net.

Answer:    (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: The Diamond Triangle of Odisha is a significant Buddhist circuit that includes the three major hill-top monastic complexes of Ratnagiri, Lalitgiri, and Udayagiri.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The Ratnagiri site is located in the Jajpur district and is strategically and geographically isolated by being surrounded by the Brahmani, Kimiria, and Birupa This seclusion made it an ideal location for a major monastic center.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Diamond Triangle is primarily associated with Vajrayana (Tantric Buddhism), not Hinayana Buddhism. The term Diamond itself is a translation of Vajra, and excavations at Ratnagiri have confirmed its status as a major Vajrayana center. The presence of deities such as Tara, Marici, and the Dhyani Buddhas (Amoghasiddhi, Ratnasambhava, Akshobhya, and Amitabha) underscores its Tantric roots.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
For two clocks to show the same time again, one must gain a full 12-hour cycle (720 minutes) over the other on an analog dial.

Relative gain per hour = 2 + 3 = 5 minutes/hour

Time required = 720 ÷ 5 = 144 hours = 6 days

Starting from Monday 10:00 AM:
After 6 days = Sunday 10:00 AM

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Total years = 21

Leap years: 1996, 2000, 2004, 2008, 2012 → 5 leap years
Ordinary years = 16

Total odd days = (5 × 2) + (16 × 1) = 26
26 ÷ 7 → remainder 5

Since we move backward:
Monday − 5 days = Wednesday

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Let boys = x, girls = 2x
3x = 60 ⇒ x = 20 boys, 40 girls

Students ahead = 16
Girls ahead = 9 ⇒ Boys ahead = 7

Boys up to Kamal = 7 + 1 = 8

Boys after him = 20 − 8 = 12

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Arrange from tallest (1) to shortest (7):

U is tallest → Rank 1
P is taller than only 3 persons → Rank 4

R is shorter than P → R ∈ positions 5, 6, 7
S is shorter than R but taller than Q → R > S > Q

Thus, positions 5, 6, 7 are:
R (5), S (6), Q (7)

T is taller than V but shorter than P → T lies above V but below P (positions 2 or 3); exact placement not required

From the bottom:
Q (7), S (6), R (5)

Third shortest = R

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
The passage argues that success is influenced not only by individual effort but also by structural advantages.

Option (a) is incorrect because talent is acknowledged.
Option (b) is incorrect because no hierarchy between factors is stated.
Option (d) is too narrow.

Option (c) is correct as it reflects the central idea that fairness requires addressing structural inequalities, not just outcomes.