DAY – 52 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : POLITY

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is established under Article 148 of the Constitution. As the “Guardian of the Public Purse,” the office is designed to be highly independent.

• Statement 1 is correct: The CAG is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal. This specific method of appointment (by warrant) is shared only with a few other high-ranking officials, such as Judges of the Supreme Court and Governors, signifying the high status and independence of the office.
• Statement 2 is correct: To ensure independence from the executive, the administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions of persons serving in that office, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This means they are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 148(4), the CAG is ineligible for further office either under the Government of India or the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. This restriction is intended to prevent the executive from influencing the CAG’s functioning with the promise of future employment.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

Bodies are classified as Constitutional (mentioned in the text of the Constitution), Statutory (created by an Act of Parliament), or Executive (created by a government order).

• 1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): This is a Constitutional Body under Article 338. Originally, Article 338 provided for a single Special Officer, but it was later amended to create a multi-member Commission.
• 2. National Commission for Women (NCW): This is a Statutory Body. It was established in 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. It does not have a specific Article in the Constitution.
• 3. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): This is a Statutory Body. It was established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993.
• 4. National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): This is now a Constitutional Body. While it was originally a statutory body (created in 1993), it was granted constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Article 338B into the Constitution.

Out of the four, the National Commission for Women and the National Human Rights Commission are not constitutional bodies. Therefore, there are two such bodies.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India, established under Articles 315 to 323 of the Constitution. To maintain its impartiality, the Constitution provides for a rigorous removal process and defines its functional relationship with the executive.

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 317, the President can remove the Chairman or any other member of the UPSC on the ground of misbehaviour. However, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the inquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises the President, the advice is binding, and the President can then remove the Chairman or member.

For other grounds like insolvency, infirmity of mind/body, or engaging in paid employment outside duties, a Supreme Court inquiry is not required.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The UPSC is a consultative body. The advice tendered by the Commission is advisory and not binding on the government. However, the government is answerable to Parliament; if the government rejects the advice of the UPSC, it must present a memorandum to Parliament explaining the reasons for such non-acceptance.

Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

Answer: (d)

Explanation

The Advocate General of a State is a constitutional post established under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. He is the highest legal officer in the state, serving as the counterpart to the Attorney General of India at the central level.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the State. He holds office during the pleasure of the Governor, meaning he can be removed at any time without a specific constitutional procedure. Conventionally, he resigns when the state government (Council of Ministers) changes.
• Statement 2 is correct: To be appointed as Advocate General, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of a High Court. This means they must be a citizen of India and have held a judicial office for ten years or been an advocate of a High Court for ten years.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 177, the Advocate General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the State Legislature (and any committee of the legislature of which he may be named a member). However, he does not have the right to vote in these proceedings.

Hence, all three statements are correct.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280. Its primary role is to define the financial relations between the Union and the States.

• Article 281 of the Constitution specifically outlines the procedure for the Finance Commission’s report. It states that the President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission, along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon, to be laid before each House of Parliament (both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha).
• The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding on the government. However, by convention, the government usually accepts the recommendations relating to the distribution of taxes.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

The Constitution provides different levels of security of tenure based on the independence required by each office. Some serve at the “pleasure” of the executive, while others have a rigid, judicial-style removal process.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Attorney General for India (Article 76) holds office during the pleasure of the President. This means the President can remove them at any time without providing a specific reason or following a special procedure. Typically, the Attorney General resigns when the Council of Ministers (the government) changes.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Similarly, the Advocate General of a State (Article 165) holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. There is no fixed tenure or prescribed procedure for removal in the Constitution.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Chairperson of the NHRC enjoys a high level of security of tenure under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. For removal on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court. The President can only remove the Chairperson if the Supreme Court, after an inquiry, upholds the charges and recommends removal.

Hence, all three pairs are correctly matched according to their respective constitutional provisions.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

The office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities (Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities) was established to protect the rights of people whose mother tongue is different from the majority language of a state.

• Statement 1 is correct: The original Constitution did not contain this office. It was inserted as Article 350B by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission (1953–55). The Commission noted that while states were being reorganized on a linguistic basis, it was vital to have a constitutional mechanism to safeguard the interests of linguistic minorities within those states.
• Statement 2 is correct: At the Central level, the Special Officer (known as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities) falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Minority Affairs. The Commissioner has his headquarters at Prayagraj (Allahabad), with regional offices in Belgaum, Chennai, and Kolkata.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: While the office is created by Article 350B, the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salary, or allowances of the Special Officer. These are determined by the President of India through executive orders.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct; Statement 3 is incorrect.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. Originally set up by an executive resolution in 1964 (based on the Santhanam Committee recommendations), it was granted statutory status by the CVC Act, 2003.

To ensure its independence from the executive, the selection process involves a multi-member, bipartisan committee. According to the CVC Act, the Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of:

1. The Prime Minister (as the Chairperson of the committee).
2. The Minister of Home Affairs.
3. The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.

If there is no recognized Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the leader of the single largest opposition party in the House is included in the committee.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on January 1, 2015, via a Cabinet Resolution, replacing the Planning Commission. Its structure is designed to reflect the spirit of “Cooperative Federalism.”

• Statement-I is correct: The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog. This ensures that the body has the highest level of political leadership and can coordinate effectively across various ministries.
• Statement-II is incorrect: While the Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog does enjoy the rank of a Cabinet Minister, they are appointed by the Prime Minister, not by the President of India. because NITI Aayog is an executive body (created by a government order) rather than a constitutional one, its key appointments are made directly by the head of the government.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 introduced significant changes to the original 2005 Act, primarily focused on the service conditions of Information Commissioners.

• Statement 1 is correct: Under the original 2005 Act, the salary of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) was fixed as equivalent to that of the Chief Election Commissioner. The 2019 Amendment removed this parity. It mandated that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the CIC and Information Commissioners (both at the Central and State levels) shall be prescribed by the Central Government.
• Statement 2 is correct: The 2005 Act had fixed the term of office for the CIC and Information Commissioners at a specific tenure of five years (or until the age of 65). The 2019 Amendment empowered the Central Government to prescribe the term of office for these officials through executive rules. Currently, under the Right to Information (Term of Office, Salaries, Allowances and Other Terms and Conditions of Service of Commissioners) Rules, 2019, the term has been set at three years.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The reporting structure of the Central Information Commission remains unchanged. The Commission is required to prepare an annual report on the implementation of the provisions of the Act and provide it to the Central Government (specifically to the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions). The Government then causes a copy of the report to be laid before each House of Parliament. It does not submit its report to the Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (b)

Detailed Solution:

1. Calculate elapsed time on the faulty clock:
   • From Monday 5:00 AM to Thursday 5:00 AM = 3 days = 72 hours.
   • From Thursday 5:00 AM to Thursday 10:00 PM = 17 hours.
   • Total faulty time elapsed = 72 + 17 = 89 hours.
2. Determine the ratio of Correct Time to Faulty Time:
   • In 24 hours of correct time, the clock loses 16 minutes.
   • Faulty time = 23 hours 44 minutes = 23 + (44/60) = 23 + 11/15 = 356/15 hours.
   • Ratio: 356/15 hours (Faulty) = 24 hours (Correct).
   • 1 hour (Faulty) = 24 * (15/356) = 360/356 hours (Correct).
3. Calculate true elapsed time:
   • True hours = 89 * (360/356).
   • Note that 356 = 89 * 4.
   • True hours = 360 / 4 = 90 hours.
4. Find the final time:
   • Monday 5:00 AM + 90 hours = 3 days (72 hrs) + 18 hours.
   • Monday 5:00 AM + 3 days = Thursday 5:00 AM.
   • Thursday 5:00 AM + 18 hours = Thursday 11:00 PM.

Answer: (d) 2132

Solution:

2092 is a leap year.

Normally, leap years repeat after 28 years, but this pattern is broken by the year 2100, which is not a leap year (century rule).

Check repetition using odd days:

From 2092 to 2132 = 40 years

Count leap years in between:
2092, 2096, 2104, 2108, 2112, 2116, 2120, 2124, 2128 → 9 leap years

Ordinary years = 40 − 9 = 31

Total odd days =
(9 × 2) + (31 × 1) = 18 + 31 = 49

49 is divisible by 7 → 0 odd days

Also, 2132 is a leap year

Both conditions satisfied:

• Same year type (leap)
• Total odd days = 0

Therefore, 2092 and 2132 have identical calendars

Final Answer: (d) 2132

Answer: (a)

Detailed Solution:

1. Calculate Total Boys and Girls:
   • G = 3B; G + B = 80 => 4B = 80.
   • Boys = 20, Girls = 60.
2. Analyze Praveen’s position:
   • He is 25th from the top. This means there are 24 students ahead of him.
3. Gender breakdown ahead of Praveen:
   • Girls ahead = 14.
   • Boys ahead = 24 – 14 = 10 boys.
4. Total boys accounted for:
   • Boys ahead (10) + Praveen himself (1) = 11 boys.
5. Calculate boys after him:
   • Total boys – Boys accounted for = 20 – 11 = 9 boys.

Answer: (c)

Detailed Solution:

1. Positions: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
2. C4 is in the middle: (__ , __ , C4 , __ , __).
3. C3 is to the immediate right of C1: This means the pair C1-C3 must stay together.
4. Constraint on C1: C1 is not at an extreme end (Position 1 is blocked).
5. Placement of C1-C3: They must occupy Positions 4-5 or 1-2. Since Position 1 is blocked for C1, they must be at 4 and 5.
   • Queue so far: (__ , __ , C4 , C1 , C3).
6. C5 is to the immediate left of C2: This means the pair C5-C2 must stay together.
7. Remaining spots: Positions 1 and 2 are vacant.
   • Place C5 at 1 and C2 at 2.
   • Final Queue: C5 , C2 , C4 , C1 , C3.
8. Extreme Left: C5.

Answer: (c)

Detailed Solution:

1. Analyze (a): The passage explicitly states the “real cost” is not privacy, but the shrinking of the intellectual horizon.
2. Analyze (b): The passage views the loss of “friction” as a negative thing (eroding serendipity), not a positive “efficiency.”
3. Analyze (c): This aligns perfectly. The passage describes how algorithms “narrow” tastes and “shield” us from the unfamiliar, which results in the “shrinking of the human intellectual horizon.” This matches “limiting intellectual growth by reducing exposure to diverse ideas.”
4. Analyze (d): The passage values serendipity, but it never compares it to “logical decision-making” or ranks it as the “most important” trait. It simply notes that serendipity is being eroded.