DAY – 51 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : POLITY

Answer: (b)

Statement I is Correct:
Under Article 72, the President of India has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite, remission, suspension or commutation of sentence in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial. This power is not available to the Governor under Article 161.

Statement II is Correct:
Under Article 257(2), the executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to a State regarding the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance.

Statement III is Incorrect:
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People, i.e. the Lok Sabha, under Article 75(3). The Constitution does not say that it is collectively responsible to both Houses of Parliament.

Answer: (b)

Statement I is Correct:
Under Article 88, the Attorney-General has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of Parliament and in any Committee of which he is a member.

Statement II is Correct:
While the Attorney-General is not a Member of Parliament, he is entitled to functional privileges and immunities necessary for participation in parliamentary proceedings, particularly protection in respect of anything said in the course of such proceedings.

Statement III is Incorrect:
The Attorney-General is not a member of the Union Cabinet. He is appointed under Article 76 as the chief legal advisor to the Government and is not bound by collective responsibility.

Answer: (d)

Statement I is correct:
The mechanism of a Joint Sitting (Article 108) is available only for Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills (Category I & II).

It is not available for Money Bills (where the Lok Sabha has overriding powers).

It is not available for Constitutional Amendment Bills (which must be passed by both Houses separately under Article 368).

Statement II is Correct:
If the President has notified his intention to summon a Joint Sitting, the Bill does not lapse upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The Joint Sitting can still be held and the Bill can be passed, as the process has already been set in motion under Article 108(5).

Statement III is Correct:
At a Joint Sitting, no fresh amendments can be moved, except those that are:

• Already agreed upon by one House and not the other, or
• Rendered necessary due to the delay in the passage of the Bill.

Answer: (b)

Statement I is correct.
Article 243R(2) empowers the State Legislature to provide, by law, for the representation of Members of the House of the People and the State Legislature in Municipalities.

Statement II is correct.
Article 243U provides that when a Municipality is dissolved before the completion of its term, the newly constituted body continues only for the remainder of the period of the original term (subject to the six-month condition).

Statement III is incorrect.
Article 243T mandates reservation only for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women. Reservation for Backward Classes is not a constitutional requirement and is left to the discretion of the State Legislature.

Answer: (b)

Statement I is incorrect.
The Constitution of India does not provide an explicit definition of the term “Office of Profit.” The expression finds mention in Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a), but its precise meaning has been evolved through judicial interpretation and legislative practice. Courts have laid down tests such as the nature of appointment, authority of removal, and the extent of control exercised by the government to determine whether an office qualifies as an “office of profit.”

Statement II is correct.
Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) stipulate that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of Parliament or a State Legislature if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State. However, the Constitution also permits Parliament or the State Legislature, as the case may be, to enact laws declaring certain offices not to disqualify their holders. Thus, disqualification operates subject to statutory exemptions.

Statement III is correct.
Under Article 103, any question regarding the disqualification of a Member of Parliament is decided by the President. However, the President does not act independently in this matter; he is constitutionally bound to act in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission of India. This ensures an impartial and quasi-judicial determination of such disputes.

Answer: (d)

Statement I is correct.
Under Article 3, Parliament has the power to alter the area, boundaries or name of a State. Although the concerned State Legislature is given an opportunity to express its views, its consent is not required, and Parliament may proceed irrespective of such views.

Statement II is incorrect.
A Bill for the reorganization of States cannot be introduced without the recommendation of the President. Under Article 3, prior presidential recommendation is a mandatory constitutional requirement. Hence, the statement is wrong.

Statement III is incorrect.
The President is required to refer the Bill to the State Legislature for its views within a specified period. However, these views are not binding, and the President is not obliged to accept them. Therefore, this statement is also incorrect.

Answer: (b)

Pair I is Correct.
A Lame-duck session refers to the final session of the existing Lok Sabha after a new Lok Sabha has been elected. The members of the existing Lok Sabha who failed to get re-elected to the new House are colloquially referred to as “lame ducks.”

Pair II is correct.
Sine die denotes the termination of a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period, without fixing a date for the next meeting.

Pair III is Correct.
Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. Under Article 100, the quorum for both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is one-tenth of the total number of members, and this count includes the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman).

Pair IV is incorrect.
A snap poll refers to an election held before the expiry of the normal tenure, usually due to premature dissolution, not after completion of the full five-year term.

Pair V is incorrect.
A shadow cabinet is formed by the opposition party, not the ruling party, to scrutinize government functioning.

Answer: (a)

Statement I is correct.
Under Article 78, the Prime Minister acts as the principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers. He is duty-bound to keep the President informed about decisions of the Council and matters relating to administration.

Statement II is incorrect.
The Prime Minister need not necessarily be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of appointment. He can be a member of either House of Parliament or even a non-member, provided he gets elected to either House within six months, failing which he must resign.

Answer: (b)

Statement I is incorrect.
Under Article 243(b), the Gram Sabha consists of persons whose names are included in the electoral rolls of a village. The phrase “all persons residing” is inaccurate, as it excludes minors and non-registered residents. Hence, the statement is not strictly correct.

Statement II is incorrect.
Under Article 243A, the powers and functions of the Gram Sabha are determined by the State Legislature, not the Central Government.

Statement III is correct.
The Gram Sabha is the permanent body at the village level, as it is not subject to dissolution, unlike the Panchayat which has a fixed tenure.

Statement IV is incorrect.
The Gram Sabha does not have the authority to cancel the election of the Sarpanch; such matters are governed by election laws and adjudicated by competent authorities.

Answer: (b)

Statement I is incorrect.
There is a clear constitutional distinction. While the pensions of High Court judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (reflected in Article 112), their salaries and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State under Article 202. Hence, the statement, which groups all three together under the Consolidated Fund of India, is incorrect.

Statement II is correct.
Under Article 266(3), no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law.

Statement III is correct.
Under Article 266(1), the Consolidated Fund of India includes all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised, and all moneys received in repayment of loans.

Correct Answer: (d)

Detailed Solution:

This is a conditional probability problem. We are given the condition that the product is a multiple of 4.

• Identify the Sample Space (Product is a multiple of 4): A product is a multiple of 4 if at least one die shows a 4, or if both dice show even numbers (2 or 6).
  • Pairs containing 4: (4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6) and (1,4), (2,4), (3,4), (5,4), (6,4). Total = 11.
  • Pairs of other even numbers (2, 6): (2,2), (2,6), (6,2), (6,6). Total = 4.
  • Total outcomes in restricted sample space (n): 11 + 4 = 15.
• Identify Favorable Outcomes (Sum is Prime): We check these 15 outcomes for sums that are prime (2, 3, 5, 7, 11):
  • (4,1) Sum = 5 (Prime)
  • (1,4) Sum = 5 (Prime)
  • (4,3) Sum = 7 (Prime)
  • (3,4) Sum = 7 (Prime)
  • All other pairs (e.g., (4,2), (2,4), (4,4), (2,2), (2,6)) result in even sums, and since the minimum even sum here is 4, none can be prime. Pairs like (4,5) sum to 9 (not prime).
  • Total favorable outcomes (m): 4.
• Calculation: Probability = m / n = 4 / 15.

Correct Answer: (b)

Detailed Solution:

1. Determine n: The total number of small cubes is n cubed = 216. Therefore, n = 6.
2. Understand “At most two faces”: This includes cubes with 0 faces painted, 1 face painted, or 2 faces painted. This accounts for every cube except those with 3 faces painted.
3. Identify 3-face painted cubes: Cubes with exactly 3 faces painted are always located at the corners of the original cube. Every cube has exactly 8 corners.
4. Calculation: Total cubes = 216. Cubes with 3 faces painted = 8. Cubes with 0, 1, or 2 faces painted = Total – (3-face painted cubes) Cubes = 216 – 8 = 208.

Correct Answer: (c)

Detailed Solution:

• Conclusion I: There is no direct negative relationship between Stars and Asteroids. While Stars are inside Planets, and some Planets are Comets (which are not Asteroids), the Stars circle could be entirely separate from the Comets circle. Therefore, we cannot say “Some Stars are not Asteroids” with certainty. Conclusion I does not follow.
• Conclusion II: Statement 2 says “Some Planets are Comets” and Statement 3 says “No Comet is an Asteroid.” This means the specific portion of Planets that are Comets can never be Asteroids. Therefore, the statement “All Planets are Asteroids” is a logical impossibility. Conclusion II does not follow.
• Conclusion III: Because “Some Planets are Comets” and “No Comet is an Asteroid,” the Planets that overlap with Comets are guaranteed to never be Asteroids. This makes “Some Planets are not Asteroids” a definite truth. Conclusion III follows.

Correct Answer: (b)

Detailed Solution:

• Conclusion I: The phrase “Only a few Pens are Pencils” logically implies two things: “Some Pens are Pencils” AND “Some Pens are NOT Pencils.” Because it is a fact that some pens are not pencils, the possibility of “All Pens” being pencils is eliminated. Conclusion I does not follow.
• Conclusion II: We know from Statement 1 that “Some Pens are Pencils” and from Statement 2 that “All Pencils are Erasers.” Thus, some Pens are definitely Erasers. Since “No Eraser is a Paper,” the Pens that are Erasers can never be Paper. This confirms “Some Pens are not Paper.” Conclusion II follows.
• Conclusion III: “All Pencils are Erasers” and “No Eraser is a Paper.” If the outer circle (Eraser) cannot touch Paper, the inner circle (Pencil) cannot touch Paper either. Conclusion III follows.

Correct Answer: (b)

Detailed Solution:

• Option (a): This is too extreme. The passage points out the costs of recycling (energy and degradation) but doesn’t dismiss it as entirely “ineffective.”
• Option (b): The passage argues that focusing on material recovery (circularity) without addressing the “absolute volume of consumption” is insufficient. It explicitly calls for a move toward “sufficiency” (consuming only what is necessary). This implies that a circular economy must be paired with a reduction in total consumption to be truly effective. This is the most supported inference.
• Option (c): While the passage mentions thermodynamic realities and degradation, its primary focus is on the economic paradigm (efficiency vs. sufficiency) rather than just the scientific impossibility of zero waste.
• Option (d): The passage describes the nature of the shift (efficiency to sufficiency) but does not categorize the challenge as purely “political” versus “technical.”