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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the essential features of the Parliamentary system of government in India?
- Presence of nominal and real executives.
- Membership of the ministers in the legislature.
- Separation of powers between the executive and legislative organs.
- Dissolution of the lower house by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Correct: A key feature of the parliamentary system is the existence of two executives. The President is the nominal (titular) executive or De Jure head, while the Prime Minister is the real executive or De Facto
- Statement 2 is Correct: In India, a minister must be a member of the Parliament. If a person who is not a member is appointed as a minister, they must become a member of either House within six months, failing which they cease to be a minister. This ensures a fusion of the executive and the legislature.
- Statement 3 is Incorrect: This is a major trap. The Parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination (fusion of powers) between the legislative and executive organs. Strict separation of powers is the fundamental characteristic of the Presidential system (like in the USA).
- Statement 4 is Correct: The Lower House (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister before the expiry of its term. This is a mechanism to seek a fresh mandate from the people.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Correct: A key feature of the parliamentary system is the existence of two executives. The President is the nominal (titular) executive or De Jure head, while the Prime Minister is the real executive or De Facto
- Statement 2 is Correct: In India, a minister must be a member of the Parliament. If a person who is not a member is appointed as a minister, they must become a member of either House within six months, failing which they cease to be a minister. This ensures a fusion of the executive and the legislature.
- Statement 3 is Incorrect: This is a major trap. The Parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination (fusion of powers) between the legislative and executive organs. Strict separation of powers is the fundamental characteristic of the Presidential system (like in the USA).
- Statement 4 is Correct: The Lower House (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister before the expiry of its term. This is a mechanism to seek a fresh mandate from the people.
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following was the primary reason for adopting the Parliamentary form of government instead of the Presidential form?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement (a) is Correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and other leaders argued that while the Presidential system provides more stability, the Parliamentary system provides more responsibility (accountability). Having lived under British constitutional experiments (like the Acts of 1919 and 1935), Indian leaders were already familiar with the mechanics of the parliamentary model and felt it was better suited to avoid executive-legislative deadlock.
- Statement (b) is Incorrect: The Parliamentary system is actually based on the fusion of powers rather than a strict separation. In India, the executive (ministers) must be members of the legislature. Strict separation of powers is a hallmark of the Presidential system.
- Statement (c) is Incorrect: While the Parliamentary system facilitates coordination between the executive and legislature, it does not completely eliminate the possibility of conflict. Deadlocks can still occur, though the mechanism for resolving them (like the resignation of the cabinet or dissolution of the house) is built into the system.
- Statement (d) is Incorrect: The founding fathers explicitly prioritized legislative accountability over a fixed executive. They wanted a government that was answerable to the people’s representatives on a daily basis.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement (a) is Correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and other leaders argued that while the Presidential system provides more stability, the Parliamentary system provides more responsibility (accountability). Having lived under British constitutional experiments (like the Acts of 1919 and 1935), Indian leaders were already familiar with the mechanics of the parliamentary model and felt it was better suited to avoid executive-legislative deadlock.
- Statement (b) is Incorrect: The Parliamentary system is actually based on the fusion of powers rather than a strict separation. In India, the executive (ministers) must be members of the legislature. Strict separation of powers is a hallmark of the Presidential system.
- Statement (c) is Incorrect: While the Parliamentary system facilitates coordination between the executive and legislature, it does not completely eliminate the possibility of conflict. Deadlocks can still occur, though the mechanism for resolving them (like the resignation of the cabinet or dissolution of the house) is built into the system.
- Statement (d) is Incorrect: The founding fathers explicitly prioritized legislative accountability over a fixed executive. They wanted a government that was answerable to the people’s representatives on a daily basis.
-
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India, consider the following rights:
- Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
- Equality before the law and equal protection of laws
- Protection of language, script and culture of minorities
- Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
Which of the above Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens of India and not to foreigners (except enemy aliens)?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Prohibition of discrimination (Article 15): This right is available only to citizens. It prevents the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
- Equality before the law (Article 14): This is available to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners. It ensures that everyone is equal in the eyes of the law within the territory of India.
- Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities (Article 29): This is a cultural and educational right available only to citizens.
- Protection against arrest and detention (Article 22): This is available to all persons (except enemy aliens). It provides procedural safeguards to anyone who is arrested or detained.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Prohibition of discrimination (Article 15): This right is available only to citizens. It prevents the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
- Equality before the law (Article 14): This is available to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners. It ensures that everyone is equal in the eyes of the law within the territory of India.
- Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities (Article 29): This is a cultural and educational right available only to citizens.
- Protection against arrest and detention (Article 22): This is available to all persons (except enemy aliens). It provides procedural safeguards to anyone who is arrested or detained.
-
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsIf one sails from the Persian Gulf to the Sea of Japan through the shortest maritime route, which of the following is the correct sequence of straits that one would pass through?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
The shortest maritime route from the Persian Gulf to the Sea of Japan (located between the Japanese archipelago and the Asian mainland) follows the primary global energy artery connecting the Middle East to East Asia.
- Strait of Hormuz: This is the starting point, as it is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean (Gulf of Oman/Arabian Sea).
- Strait of Malacca: After crossing the Indian Ocean, the shortest path into the Pacific is through the Strait of Malacca (between Sumatra and the Malay Peninsula). Palk Strait (option a) is a detour between India and Sri Lanka, and the Sunda Strait (option d) is a longer alternative route used primarily when the Malacca Strait is congested or for very deep-draught vessels.
- Taiwan Strait: Once in the South China Sea, sailing north toward Japan typically involves passing through the Taiwan Strait (between China and Taiwan) to enter the East China Sea.
- Korea Strait: To finally enter the Sea of Japan, the vessel must pass through the Korea Strait (specifically the Tsushima Strait channel), which separates South Korea from the Japanese island of Kyushu.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
The shortest maritime route from the Persian Gulf to the Sea of Japan (located between the Japanese archipelago and the Asian mainland) follows the primary global energy artery connecting the Middle East to East Asia.
- Strait of Hormuz: This is the starting point, as it is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean (Gulf of Oman/Arabian Sea).
- Strait of Malacca: After crossing the Indian Ocean, the shortest path into the Pacific is through the Strait of Malacca (between Sumatra and the Malay Peninsula). Palk Strait (option a) is a detour between India and Sri Lanka, and the Sunda Strait (option d) is a longer alternative route used primarily when the Malacca Strait is congested or for very deep-draught vessels.
- Taiwan Strait: Once in the South China Sea, sailing north toward Japan typically involves passing through the Taiwan Strait (between China and Taiwan) to enter the East China Sea.
- Korea Strait: To finally enter the Sea of Japan, the vessel must pass through the Korea Strait (specifically the Tsushima Strait channel), which separates South Korea from the Japanese island of Kyushu.
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsThe 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added which of the following new Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) to the Constitution of India?
- To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children
- To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife
How many of the above were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Correct (Article 39, clause f): It added the provision to ensure that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity.
- Statement 2 is Correct (Article 39A): It introduced the mandate for the State to promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor or those with economic disabilities (this led to the creation of NALSA).
- Statement 3 is Correct (Article 43A): It mandated the State to take steps (by legislation or otherwise) to ensure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings or industrial organizations.
- Statement 4 is Correct (Article 48A): it added the duty of the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Correct (Article 39, clause f): It added the provision to ensure that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity.
- Statement 2 is Correct (Article 39A): It introduced the mandate for the State to promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor or those with economic disabilities (this led to the creation of NALSA).
- Statement 3 is Correct (Article 43A): It mandated the State to take steps (by legislation or otherwise) to ensure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings or industrial organizations.
- Statement 4 is Correct (Article 48A): it added the duty of the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- They were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950.
- They were added based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
- They are applicable to both citizens and foreigners residing in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. They were introduced during the Internal Emergency by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
- Statement 2 is Correct: The 42nd Amendment added these duties based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. Interestingly, the committee recommended eight duties, but the amendment included ten (the 11th was added later in 2002).
- Statement 3 is Incorrect: Unlike some Fundamental Rights (like Article 14 or 21) which apply to everyone on Indian soil, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only. They do not extend to foreigners.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. They were introduced during the Internal Emergency by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
- Statement 2 is Correct: The 42nd Amendment added these duties based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. Interestingly, the committee recommended eight duties, but the amendment included ten (the 11th was added later in 2002).
- Statement 3 is Incorrect: Unlike some Fundamental Rights (like Article 14 or 21) which apply to everyone on Indian soil, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only. They do not extend to foreigners.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002:
- It added a new Fundamental Duty to provide opportunities for education to children between 6 and 14 years.
- It made the Fundamental Duties justiciable for the first time.
- It was passed to align Part IV-A with the newly added Article 21A.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Correct: Before this amendment, there were only 10 Fundamental Duties. The 86th Amendment added the 11th Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k), which states that it is the duty of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect: Fundamental Duties remain non-justiciable. The 86th Amendment did not change the legal character of Part IV-A. While the government can pass specific laws to enforce them (like the Right to Education Act), a citizen cannot be sued in court solely for violating a Fundamental Duty.
- Statement 3 is Correct: The amendment created a cohesive framework for education. It added Article 21A (Right to Education as a Fundamental Right) and changed the subject matter of Article 45 (DPSP). The new Fundamental Duty was added to ensure that while the State provides the facility (Article 21A), the citizens (parents) also have an obligation to utilize it.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Correct: Before this amendment, there were only 10 Fundamental Duties. The 86th Amendment added the 11th Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k), which states that it is the duty of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect: Fundamental Duties remain non-justiciable. The 86th Amendment did not change the legal character of Part IV-A. While the government can pass specific laws to enforce them (like the Right to Education Act), a citizen cannot be sued in court solely for violating a Fundamental Duty.
- Statement 3 is Correct: The amendment created a cohesive framework for education. It added Article 21A (Right to Education as a Fundamental Right) and changed the subject matter of Article 45 (DPSP). The new Fundamental Duty was added to ensure that while the State provides the facility (Article 21A), the citizens (parents) also have an obligation to utilize it.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsRegarding the ‘Tribes Advisory Council’ (TAC) mentioned in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, which of the following is correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Option (a) is Incorrect: A TAC must be established in each state having Scheduled Areas. However, if the President so directs, it can also be established in a state having Scheduled Tribes but no Scheduled Areas. It is not required in every state of India.
- Option (b) is Correct: According to the Constitution, the TAC shall consist of not more than 20 members. Out of these, three-fourths must be representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of that State. If the number of ST representatives in the Assembly is less than the required seats in the Council, the remaining seats are filled by other members of those tribes.
- Option (c) is Incorrect: The Constitution does not state that the President appoints the Chairman. The Governor of the state makes rules prescribing the mode of appointment of the Chairman and other members, as well as the conduct of its meetings.
- Option (d) is Incorrect: The role of the TAC is advisory. While the Governor must consult the TAC on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the state, the advice is not legally binding.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Option (a) is Incorrect: A TAC must be established in each state having Scheduled Areas. However, if the President so directs, it can also be established in a state having Scheduled Tribes but no Scheduled Areas. It is not required in every state of India.
- Option (b) is Correct: According to the Constitution, the TAC shall consist of not more than 20 members. Out of these, three-fourths must be representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of that State. If the number of ST representatives in the Assembly is less than the required seats in the Council, the remaining seats are filled by other members of those tribes.
- Option (c) is Incorrect: The Constitution does not state that the President appoints the Chairman. The Governor of the state makes rules prescribing the mode of appointment of the Chairman and other members, as well as the conduct of its meetings.
- Option (d) is Incorrect: The role of the TAC is advisory. While the Governor must consult the TAC on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the state, the advice is not legally binding.
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsThe Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 was enacted primarily to give effect to the spirit of which of the following Constitutional provisions?
- Article 17 – Abolition of Untouchability
- Article 21 – Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
- Article 23 – Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and Forced Labour
How many of the above provisions are most directly reflected in the objective of the Act?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability): This is the most direct constitutional parent of the Act. While Article 17 abolished untouchability, the 1989 Act provides the specific penal consequences for “atrocities” that stem from the practice of untouchability and caste-based prejudice.
- Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty): The Act protects SCs and STs from physical violence, sexual exploitation, and social boycott—all of which are violations of the right to live with human dignity. The Supreme Court has repeatedly held that “Life” under Article 21 includes the right to be free from caste-based humiliation.
- Article 23 (Prohibition of Forced Labour): Many atrocities listed in the 1989 Act involve economic exploitation, such as bonded labour (begar) or forcing members of SC/ST communities to perform degrading tasks. By criminalizing these acts, the statute gives practical effect to the prohibition of forced labour.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability): This is the most direct constitutional parent of the Act. While Article 17 abolished untouchability, the 1989 Act provides the specific penal consequences for “atrocities” that stem from the practice of untouchability and caste-based prejudice.
- Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty): The Act protects SCs and STs from physical violence, sexual exploitation, and social boycott—all of which are violations of the right to live with human dignity. The Supreme Court has repeatedly held that “Life” under Article 21 includes the right to be free from caste-based humiliation.
- Article 23 (Prohibition of Forced Labour): Many atrocities listed in the 1989 Act involve economic exploitation, such as bonded labour (begar) or forcing members of SC/ST communities to perform degrading tasks. By criminalizing these acts, the statute gives practical effect to the prohibition of forced labour.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the procedure for amending the Constitution under Article 368, consider the following statements:
- An amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament or in the State Legislatures.
- Prior permission of the President is required to introduce the Bill.
- The President must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill and cannot return it for reconsideration.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Incorrect: A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced only in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). State Legislatures have no power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect: Unlike a Money Bill or a Bill for the alteration of state boundaries, a Constitutional Amendment Bill does not require the prior recommendation/permission of the President for its introduction in Parliament. It can be introduced by either a Minister or a private member.
- Statement 3 is Correct: Under the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971, it was made obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. The President cannot withhold assent to the bill, nor can he return it for reconsideration to the Parliament.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is Incorrect: A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced only in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). State Legislatures have no power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect: Unlike a Money Bill or a Bill for the alteration of state boundaries, a Constitutional Amendment Bill does not require the prior recommendation/permission of the President for its introduction in Parliament. It can be introduced by either a Minister or a private member.
- Statement 3 is Correct: Under the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971, it was made obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. The President cannot withhold assent to the bill, nor can he return it for reconsideration to the Parliament.
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsA cube is painted on all faces and cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. How many of the smaller cubes have at least two faces painted?
Correct
Answer: (a) 44
Explanation:
Total small cubes = 125 = 5³ ⇒ the cube is divided into 5 parts per edge (n = 5).We need cubes with at least two faces painted, i.e.:
- Exactly 2 faces painted (edge cubes)
- Exactly 3 faces painted (corner cubes)
General formula:
Cubes with ≥2 faces painted = 12(n − 2) + 8Step 1: Exactly 3 faces painted (corners)
A cube has 8 corners → 8 cubesStep 2: Exactly 2 faces painted (edges excluding corners)
Total edges = 12
Cubes per edge (excluding corners) = (5 − 2) = 3
So: 12 × 3 = 36 cubesTotal = 36 + 8 = 44
Incorrect
Answer: (a) 44
Explanation:
Total small cubes = 125 = 5³ ⇒ the cube is divided into 5 parts per edge (n = 5).We need cubes with at least two faces painted, i.e.:
- Exactly 2 faces painted (edge cubes)
- Exactly 3 faces painted (corner cubes)
General formula:
Cubes with ≥2 faces painted = 12(n − 2) + 8Step 1: Exactly 3 faces painted (corners)
A cube has 8 corners → 8 cubesStep 2: Exactly 2 faces painted (edges excluding corners)
Total edges = 12
Cubes per edge (excluding corners) = (5 − 2) = 3
So: 12 × 3 = 36 cubesTotal = 36 + 8 = 44
-
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsA die is such that the numbers on opposite faces always sum to 7. It is rolled three times, showing:
- Roll 1: Top = 2, Front = 3
- Roll 2: Top = 3, Front = 5
- Roll 3: Top = 5, Front = 4
Which number is opposite to the face showing ‘3’?
Correct
Answer: (b) 4
Explanation:
The key condition given is:
Opposite faces sum to 7Thus:
- 1 ↔ 6
- 2 ↔ 5
- 3 ↔ 4
Therefore, the face opposite to 3 is 4.
The roll data is not required, as the given condition alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
Incorrect
Answer: (b) 4
Explanation:
The key condition given is:
Opposite faces sum to 7Thus:
- 1 ↔ 6
- 2 ↔ 5
- 3 ↔ 4
Therefore, the face opposite to 3 is 4.
The roll data is not required, as the given condition alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
-
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsStatements:
I. All writers are readers.
II. Some readers are critics.
III. No critic is an editor.Conclusions:
- Some writers are critics.
- Some readers are not editors.
- No editor is a critic.
- No writer is an editor.
Which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
Correct
Answer: (a) Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
Conclusion 1:
No definite link between writers and critics → does not followConclusion 2:
Some readers are critics and no critic is an editor →
some readers are definitely not editors → followsConclusion 3:
“No critic is an editor” is a universal negative statement and is logically reversible →
no editor is a critic → followsConclusion 4:
No information directly links writers with editors → does not followIncorrect
Answer: (a) Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
Conclusion 1:
No definite link between writers and critics → does not followConclusion 2:
Some readers are critics and no critic is an editor →
some readers are definitely not editors → followsConclusion 3:
“No critic is an editor” is a universal negative statement and is logically reversible →
no editor is a critic → followsConclusion 4:
No information directly links writers with editors → does not follow -
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsStatements:
I. Only a few cars are electric.
II. All electric cars are expensive.
III. Some expensive items are imported.Conclusions:
- Some cars are expensive.
- Some imported items are electric cars.
- All cars being electric is a possibility.
Which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
Correct
Answer: (a) Only 1
Explanation:
“Only a few cars are electric” means:
- Some cars are electric
- Some cars are definitely not electric
Conclusion 1:
Some cars are electric and all electric cars are expensive →
some cars are expensive → followsConclusion 2:
Some expensive items are imported, but no definite overlap with electric cars →
does not followConclusion 3:
Since some cars are definitely not electric,
“All cars being electric” is not possible even as a case → does not followIncorrect
Answer: (a) Only 1
Explanation:
“Only a few cars are electric” means:
- Some cars are electric
- Some cars are definitely not electric
Conclusion 1:
Some cars are electric and all electric cars are expensive →
some cars are expensive → followsConclusion 2:
Some expensive items are imported, but no definite overlap with electric cars →
does not followConclusion 3:
Since some cars are definitely not electric,
“All cars being electric” is not possible even as a case → does not follow -
Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsPassage:
Modern life is increasingly lived indoors and mediated by screens, schedules, and artificial environments. Cities are designed for speed and efficiency, yet they often leave little space for unplanned stillness or sensory rest. In such settings, stress and mental fatigue have become common experiences rather than exceptions. Many people seek relief through entertainment or consumption, but these methods rarely address the deeper sense of cognitive and emotional overload. Encounters with natural environments, by contrast, operate in a different rhythm. They do not demand constant attention or rapid response, and they allow the mind to recover from continuous stimulation. This is not because nature offers solutions to personal problems, but because it provides a setting in which attention can soften and mental strain can gradually ease.
- With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
- Continuous exposure to artificial and fast-paced environments contributes to mental fatigue.
- Entertainment and consumption are sufficient remedies for stress in modern life.
Which of the above assumptions can be inferred from the passage?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The passage links modern, artificial, fast-paced environments with stress and mental fatigue.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage explicitly says entertainment and consumption rarely address deeper overload.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The passage links modern, artificial, fast-paced environments with stress and mental fatigue.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage explicitly says entertainment and consumption rarely address deeper overload.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
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