DAY – 47 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : ECONOMY

Answer:   (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: The Biopharma SHAKTI scheme has been allocated a significant financial outlay of ₹10,000 crore. This funding is spread over a 5-year period, scheduled to commence from the Financial Year 2026–27. This investment is intended to build a complete end-to-end ecosystem for advanced biopharmaceuticals, including infrastructure and clinical trial networks.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: The primary focus of the initiative is not communicable diseases like TB or Malaria. Instead, the scheme prioritizes affordable domestic production of therapies for Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs), such as cancer, diabetes, and autoimmune disorders. This strategic pivot responds to the fact that NCDs now account for 63% of all deaths in India.

Answer:   (c)

Explanation:

The Rare Earth Corridors are specifically designed to capitalize on India’s vast beach sand mineral deposits. These deposits are primarily found along the coastal stretches of the following four states:

1. Odisha: Home to significant monazite resources and established processing infrastructure (like the IREL unit at Chatrapur).
2. Kerala: Traditionally the heart of India’s rare earth industry, with heavy concentrations of monazite in the Chavara and Aluva regions.
3. Andhra Pradesh: Features extensive coastal deposits and is being developed as a major refining and separation hub.
4. Tamil Nadu: Known for ilmenite and monazite rich sands, particularly in the Manavalakurichi region.

Gujarat is not included in the specific list of states for these Rare Earth Corridors. While Gujarat is a leader in the petroleum and chemical sectors, the primary Rare Earth bearing minerals (Monazite) are concentrated in the eastern and southern coastal placers.

Answer:    (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: The First Kartavya (Economic Growth & Resilience) focuses on the Macro aspect. It recognizes that in a world of supply chain disruptions and geopolitical tensions, India must enhance its Total Factor Productivity and build resilience. This is reflected in policies like the Rare Earth Corridors and Green Energy
• Statement 2 is Correct: The Second Kartavya (Aspirations & Capacity) focuses on the Individual aspect. It moves away from viewing citizens as mere beneficiaries of welfare and instead aims to build their capacity (through health, skills, and education) so they can contribute to the economy. The Biopharma SHAKTI scheme and the upgrade of NIPERs are prime examples.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Third Kartavya (Inclusivity & Participation) focuses on the Distributional aspect. It aligns with the Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas vision by ensuring that growth isn’t restricted to specific urban pockets or industries but reaches every family, community, and region (like the focus on the Eastern Coast or the MSME sector).

Answer:    (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Gross Tax Revenue (the top blue line) did not show a steady, continuous It rose from 10.0% to 11.5%, but then dipped to 11.4% (2022-23), stayed flat at 11.5%, dipped again to 11.4% (2025-26 RE), and is projected to fall to 11.2% (2026-27 BE). Because of these fluctuations, it is not continuous.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The Direct Tax (the green line) shows a perfect secular upward trend. It starts at 5.2% (2019-20) and rises every single year (5.4, 6.0, 6.2, 6.5, 6.7, 6.8, 6.9) without a single decline. This is a rare instance where the word consistently is factually accurate based on the data.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Indirect Tax (the orange line) peaked in 2021-22 at 5.5%. Since that point, it has dropped every year (5.2, 5.0, 4.8, 4.6, 4.3). Thus, it has indeed shown a declining trend since 2021-22.

Answer:   (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: According to the latest trade data, India’s share in global merchandise exports nearly doubled from 1% (2005) to 8% (2024). The figure 4.3% actually refers to India’s share in global commercial services exports. Swapping these two figures is a classic UPSC trap.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Between 2005 and 2024, the merchandise share rose from 1% to 1.8% (an 80% increase), while the services share rose from 2% to 4.3% (a 115% increase). Therefore, services exports have indeed grown more rapidly in terms of global market share.
• Statement 3 is Correct: In FY25, total exports grew by 1%. During the same period, services exports grew by 13.6%. Since 13.6 is more than double 6.1 (6.1 * 2 = 12.2), the statement is factually accurate.

Answer:   (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: In FY14, India’s National Highway (NH) network stood at approximately 91,287 km. By December of FY26, this network expanded to 1,46,572 km. This represents a growth of roughly 60.5%, significantly enhancing inter-state connectivity and logistics efficiency.
• Statement 2 is Correct: In 2014, India had only 74 operational airports. Under the impetus of schemes like UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik), the number of operational airports surged to 164 by 2025. Since 164 is more than double 74 (74 * 2 = 148), the statement is factually accurate.

Answer:   (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: A historic milestone was achieved in AY 2024–25 when total Horticulture production reached 362.08 MT, surpassing the total Foodgrain production of 3,577.3 LMT (approx. 357.7 MT). This indicates that farmers are increasingly moving toward high-value crops like fruits, vegetables, and spices, which offer better returns and cater to changing dietary patterns.

Statement 2 is Correct: Foodgrain production saw a robust jump, reaching 3,577.3 LMT. This was an increase of 254.3 LMT over the previous year’s output. Such a significant year-on-year increase (over 250 LMT) was driven by favorable monsoons and improved yield in major cereal-producing states.

Answer:    (a)

Explanation:

• Transition from Youth to Age: India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has fallen below the replacement level ($2.1$), and life expectancy is rising. This means while the youth population is currently high, it will eventually age.
• The Dividend Logic: Instead of viewing an aging population purely as a burden on healthcare and pensions, the Survey argues that longer life spans can be turned into an economic asset.
• Requirements to Harness the Dividend:
• Health Spans: Focusing on preventive healthcare and managing Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) so that older adults remain healthy.
• Age-Friendly Work: Creating flexible work arrangements and lifelong learning systems to allow older adults to remain in the workforce if they choose.
• Social Support: Strengthening financial security and social services for the elderly to ensure their well-being doesn’t become a drag on the economy.

Answer:   (c)

Explanation:

For a settlement to be classified as a Census Town, it must satisfy all three of the following demographic conditions simultaneously:

1. Population Size: It must have a minimum population of 5,000.
2. Occupational Shift: At least 75 per cent of the male main working population must be engaged in non-agricultural pursuits (e.g., manufacturing, services, or trade).
3. Population Density: It must have a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometre.

Answer:   (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Current Weekly Status (CWS) of a person is determined based on a reference period of the last 7 days preceding the date of the survey, not 15 days. If a person worked for at least one hour on any day during those 7 days, they are classified as employed under CWS.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) includes two categories of people: those who are working (employed) AND those who are seeking or available for work (unemployed). It represents the section of the population that is economically active.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Unemployment Rate (UR) is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force. It is not calculated against the total population.

Answer: (a) MCSXTV

Explanation:
Each letter is shifted forward by its position in the word:

• 1st letter → +1
• 2nd letter → +2
• 3rd letter → +3 and so on

Applying to LAPTOP:

• L +1 → M
• A +2 → C
• P +3 → S
• T +4 → X
• O +5 → T
• P +6 → V

Final code → MCSXTV

Answer: (a) 4-26-7-22-9

Explanation:
The pattern follows reverse alphabetical positions:

Formula: Code = 27 − (alphabet position)

Examples:

• P (16) → 27 − 16 = 11
• R (18) → 27 − 18 = 9

Applying to WATER:

• W (23) → 4
• A (1) → 26
• T (20) → 7
• E (5) → 22
• R (18) → 9

Final code → 4-26-7-22-9

Answer: (a) AEEHNPRRS

Explanation:
The coding pattern is arranging letters in ascending alphabetical order.

Applying to SHARPENER:

Letters → S, H, A, R, P, E, N, E, R
Arrange → A, E, E, H, N, P, R, R, S

Final code → AEEHNPRRS

Answer: (b) 2

Explanation:

Stepwise comparison:

• (321) & (435) → common word = Cold → digit 3
• (435) & (157) → common word = Day → digit 5
• (321) & (157) → common word = Filtered → digit 1

Now from (321):

• 3 → Cold
• 1 → Filtered
• Remaining digit 2 → Coffee

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• Option (a) is incorrect because the passage suggests “the challenge is not to eliminate expertise,” implying they can coexist.

• Option (b) is a statement of fact from the passage, but it does not capture the “critical message” (the core problem and solution).
• Option (c) is the correct answer. It addresses the central conflict—the need for expertise (technocracy) vs. the need for public oversight (accountability)—as highlighted in the final sentence.
• Option (d) mentions information, which is a secondary detail, not the main message.