The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the procedure for amending the Constitution of India under Article 368:
- A Bill to amend the Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament or the State Legislatures.
- The Bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, which includes a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of the members present and voting.
- In case of a deadlock between the two Houses, the President can summon a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.
- If the amendment seeks to make changes in the representation of States in Parliament, it requires ratification by the legislatures of all the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- The procedure for amending the Constitution is governed by Article 368, which provides for a rigid yet flexible mechanism.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the power to initiate a Constitutional Amendment Bill rests solely with the Parliament; State Legislatures cannot initiate such legislation.
- Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes the ‘Special Majority’ required: a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because the provision for a joint sitting (Article 108) does not apply to Constitution Amendment Bills. Each House must pass the Bill separately to ensure independent deliberation.
- Statement 4 is incorrect because federal matters, such as representation in Parliament (as seen in the 131st Amendment Bill regarding Articles 81 and 82), require ratification by the legislatures of at least one-half of the States, not all of them. This ensures that while States have a say in federal changes, a single dissenting State cannot veto a national consensus.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The procedure for amending the Constitution is governed by Article 368, which provides for a rigid yet flexible mechanism.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the power to initiate a Constitutional Amendment Bill rests solely with the Parliament; State Legislatures cannot initiate such legislation.
- Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes the ‘Special Majority’ required: a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because the provision for a joint sitting (Article 108) does not apply to Constitution Amendment Bills. Each House must pass the Bill separately to ensure independent deliberation.
- Statement 4 is incorrect because federal matters, such as representation in Parliament (as seen in the 131st Amendment Bill regarding Articles 81 and 82), require ratification by the legislatures of at least one-half of the States, not all of them. This ensures that while States have a say in federal changes, a single dissenting State cannot veto a national consensus.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the RELIEF Scheme:
Statement I: The scheme aims to mitigate financial risks for Indian exporters specifically in the West Asian region.
Statement II: The ECGC Limited serves as the nodal agency for implementing the financial buffer against freight hikes and insurance spikes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement I is correct. The RELIEF scheme is a targeted intervention designed to protect Indian exports from the fallout of geopolitical tensions in West Asia, specifically covering countries like Egypt, Jordan, UAE, and Iran. The objective is to ensure that Indian goods remain competitive despite the “war-risk” surcharges and freight increases that typically occur when maritime routes are threatened. This geographical specificity is a key feature of the scheme, aiming to safeguard India’s trade interests in a vital economic corridor.
- Statement II is also correct. ECGC Limited (formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India) is the nodal agency tasked with the administration of the scheme. It manages the risk coverage and the reimbursement of logistical costs.
- However, Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I. While ECGC’s role is necessary for the implementation, the reason why the scheme focuses on West Asia (Statement I) is due to the specific geopolitical volatility and maritime risks (like the Strait of Hormuz) present in that region, not simply because ECGC is the implementation agency.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement I is correct. The RELIEF scheme is a targeted intervention designed to protect Indian exports from the fallout of geopolitical tensions in West Asia, specifically covering countries like Egypt, Jordan, UAE, and Iran. The objective is to ensure that Indian goods remain competitive despite the “war-risk” surcharges and freight increases that typically occur when maritime routes are threatened. This geographical specificity is a key feature of the scheme, aiming to safeguard India’s trade interests in a vital economic corridor.
- Statement II is also correct. ECGC Limited (formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India) is the nodal agency tasked with the administration of the scheme. It manages the risk coverage and the reimbursement of logistical costs.
- However, Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I. While ECGC’s role is necessary for the implementation, the reason why the scheme focuses on West Asia (Statement I) is due to the specific geopolitical volatility and maritime risks (like the Strait of Hormuz) present in that region, not simply because ECGC is the implementation agency.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD), consider the following statements:
- It is a fatal bacterial infection that primarily affects cloven-hoofed animals.
- Young animals infected with FMD may experience sudden death due to myocarditis.
- There are seven distinct serotypes of the virus, and immunity to one ensures protection against all others.
- Humans can act as mechanical vectors by carrying the virus on their clothes and skin.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Foot-and-Mouth Disease is a complex veterinary challenge.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because FMD is a viral disease caused by an aphthovirus (Picornaviridae family), not a bacterial one. Furthermore, it is rarely fatal in adult animals, though it causes massive productivity losses.
- Statement 2 is correct; while adults usually survive, young calves, lambs, and piglets are highly susceptible and often die suddenly from myocarditis (heart muscle inflammation).
- Statement 3 is incorrect due to the nature of the virus’s serotypes (O, A, C, SAT 1, SAT 2, SAT 3, and Asia 1). Immunity is serotype-specific, meaning a vaccine or recovery from serotype ‘O’ does not protect the animal against ‘SAT 1’. This makes global control extremely difficult.
Statement 4 is correct as humans, vehicles, and farm equipment are major mechanical vectors. The virus is remarkably hardy and can survive on clothing, skin, or tyres, allowing it to spread across borders even without direct animal contact.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Foot-and-Mouth Disease is a complex veterinary challenge.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because FMD is a viral disease caused by an aphthovirus (Picornaviridae family), not a bacterial one. Furthermore, it is rarely fatal in adult animals, though it causes massive productivity losses.
- Statement 2 is correct; while adults usually survive, young calves, lambs, and piglets are highly susceptible and often die suddenly from myocarditis (heart muscle inflammation).
- Statement 3 is incorrect due to the nature of the virus’s serotypes (O, A, C, SAT 1, SAT 2, SAT 3, and Asia 1). Immunity is serotype-specific, meaning a vaccine or recovery from serotype ‘O’ does not protect the animal against ‘SAT 1’. This makes global control extremely difficult.
Statement 4 is correct as humans, vehicles, and farm equipment are major mechanical vectors. The virus is remarkably hardy and can survive on clothing, skin, or tyres, allowing it to spread across borders even without direct animal contact.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes the ‘Blue Line’ in the context of West Asian geopolitics?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Blue Line is a critical geopolitical marker in the Levant. It is a 120 km border line published by the United Nations in the year 2000 for the purposes of determining whether Israel had fully withdrawn from Lebanon. It is not a formal international border but acts as a “line of withdrawal.”
- Option (a) is incorrect as the Blue Line is a terrestrial demarcation, although maritime disputes do exist between the two nations. Option (c) is incorrect because the 10 km buffer zone mentioned in the April 2026 ceasefire deal is located inside southern Lebanon, not Israel, and is intended to prevent Hezbollah incursions.
- Option (b) is incorrect; while the Litani River is a strategic landmark and the longest river in Lebanon, it is located entirely within Lebanese territory and does not define the international boundary itself.
The 2026 ceasefire is historically significant as it represents the first time these two nations, technically in a state of war, have engaged in direct diplomatic talks, moving beyond the mere observation of the Blue Line toward a potential negotiated settlement.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Blue Line is a critical geopolitical marker in the Levant. It is a 120 km border line published by the United Nations in the year 2000 for the purposes of determining whether Israel had fully withdrawn from Lebanon. It is not a formal international border but acts as a “line of withdrawal.”
- Option (a) is incorrect as the Blue Line is a terrestrial demarcation, although maritime disputes do exist between the two nations. Option (c) is incorrect because the 10 km buffer zone mentioned in the April 2026 ceasefire deal is located inside southern Lebanon, not Israel, and is intended to prevent Hezbollah incursions.
- Option (b) is incorrect; while the Litani River is a strategic landmark and the longest river in Lebanon, it is located entirely within Lebanese territory and does not define the international boundary itself.
The 2026 ceasefire is historically significant as it represents the first time these two nations, technically in a state of war, have engaged in direct diplomatic talks, moving beyond the mere observation of the Blue Line toward a potential negotiated settlement.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘State of India’s Bats 2024–25’ report, consider the following statements:
- Karnataka and Kerala have been identified as the states with the highest bat diversity in India.
- The Kolar Leaf-nosed Bat is currently classified as Critically Endangered and is restricted to a single cave.
- Bats are the only mammals capable of true and sustained flight.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- The SoIbats 2024–25 report is a landmark assessment of India’s chiropteran diversity.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the report identifies West Bengal (68 species) and Meghalaya (66 species) as the leaders in bat diversity, not Karnataka and Kerala. This highlights the rich ecological niches found in the Eastern Himalayas and the Gangetic Delta.
- Statement 2 is correct; the Kolar Leaf-nosed Bat is one of India’s most threatened species, found only in one cave in Karnataka, making its conservation a matter of extreme urgency.
- Statement 3 is correct; bats belong to the order Chiroptera and are unique in the mammalian world for their ability to achieve sustained, powered flight, unlike “flying” squirrels or lemurs which only glide. Their wings are structurally modified hands with membranes stretched across elongated fingers.
The report also highlights the vital ecosystem services provided by India’s 135 bat species, including pollination and pest control, while flagging a massive data deficit; nearly 35 species remain unassessed. Despite their ecological importance, they face threats from habitat loss as they increasingly move from natural caves to man-made structures like dilapidated buildings.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The SoIbats 2024–25 report is a landmark assessment of India’s chiropteran diversity.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the report identifies West Bengal (68 species) and Meghalaya (66 species) as the leaders in bat diversity, not Karnataka and Kerala. This highlights the rich ecological niches found in the Eastern Himalayas and the Gangetic Delta.
- Statement 2 is correct; the Kolar Leaf-nosed Bat is one of India’s most threatened species, found only in one cave in Karnataka, making its conservation a matter of extreme urgency.
- Statement 3 is correct; bats belong to the order Chiroptera and are unique in the mammalian world for their ability to achieve sustained, powered flight, unlike “flying” squirrels or lemurs which only glide. Their wings are structurally modified hands with membranes stretched across elongated fingers.
The report also highlights the vital ecosystem services provided by India’s 135 bat species, including pollination and pest control, while flagging a massive data deficit; nearly 35 species remain unassessed. Despite their ecological importance, they face threats from habitat loss as they increasingly move from natural caves to man-made structures like dilapidated buildings.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘Vapour Pressure Deficit’ (VPD) mentioned in the context of the Colorado River, consider the following statements:
- It represents the difference between the amount of moisture in the air and how much moisture the air can hold when saturated.
- A higher VPD leads to decreased transpiration from plants to conserve water.
- Rising temperatures increase the VPD, effectively “pulling” more moisture out of the soil and snowpack.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Vapour Pressure Deficit is a key concept in understanding the aridification of the American Southwest.
- Statement 1 is correct; VPD is essentially the “thirst” of the atmosphere. It measures the gap between current humidity and the saturation point.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; a higher VPD actually increases transpiration. When the air is dry and warm (high VPD), it exerts more pressure on plants and the ground to release moisture. This creates a “biological pump” effect where vegetation draws more water from the soil to stay cool, leaving less for the river.
Statement 3 is correct. As global temperatures rise, the air’s capacity to hold water increases exponentially. This raises the VPD, causing the atmosphere to aggressively “pull” moisture from snowpacks and damp soil. This explains why, even in years with 100% normal snowpack, the Colorado River might only see 50% of its anticipated runoff. The water is literally being siphoned off by the atmosphere and plants before it can ever flow into the stream. This “Clear Sky Effect” and increased solar radiation are shifting the region from temporary drought to a permanent state of chronic dryness.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Vapour Pressure Deficit is a key concept in understanding the aridification of the American Southwest.
- Statement 1 is correct; VPD is essentially the “thirst” of the atmosphere. It measures the gap between current humidity and the saturation point.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; a higher VPD actually increases transpiration. When the air is dry and warm (high VPD), it exerts more pressure on plants and the ground to release moisture. This creates a “biological pump” effect where vegetation draws more water from the soil to stay cool, leaving less for the river.
Statement 3 is correct. As global temperatures rise, the air’s capacity to hold water increases exponentially. This raises the VPD, causing the atmosphere to aggressively “pull” moisture from snowpacks and damp soil. This explains why, even in years with 100% normal snowpack, the Colorado River might only see 50% of its anticipated runoff. The water is literally being siphoned off by the atmosphere and plants before it can ever flow into the stream. This “Clear Sky Effect” and increased solar radiation are shifting the region from temporary drought to a permanent state of chronic dryness.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following conditions facilitate the “Airborne Spread” of the Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) virus?
Correct
Solution: D
- While FMD is primarily spread through direct contact and mechanical vectors, its ability for airborne transmission makes it particularly dangerous.
- Option (d) is correct. Under specific climatic conditions—usually high humidity and steady, cool winds—the virus can survive in aerosolized droplets and be carried from one farm to another over several kilometers. This allows the disease to “jump” over biosecurity fences and quarantine zones.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the virus is generally sensitive to high temperatures and extreme desiccation. Option (c) is incorrect; while wildlife like buffalo and deer are susceptible, migratory birds are not primary biological carriers of FMD, as it specifically affects cloven-hoofed mammals.
- Option (b) is a localized risk factor for creating aerosols but does not define the “airborne spread” phenomenon which refers to long-distance windborne transmission.
- The SAT 1 serotype crisis highlights the need for international cooperation because even strict land-border controls can be bypassed if the virus becomes windborne during an outbreak.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- While FMD is primarily spread through direct contact and mechanical vectors, its ability for airborne transmission makes it particularly dangerous.
- Option (d) is correct. Under specific climatic conditions—usually high humidity and steady, cool winds—the virus can survive in aerosolized droplets and be carried from one farm to another over several kilometers. This allows the disease to “jump” over biosecurity fences and quarantine zones.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the virus is generally sensitive to high temperatures and extreme desiccation. Option (c) is incorrect; while wildlife like buffalo and deer are susceptible, migratory birds are not primary biological carriers of FMD, as it specifically affects cloven-hoofed mammals.
- Option (b) is a localized risk factor for creating aerosols but does not define the “airborne spread” phenomenon which refers to long-distance windborne transmission.
- The SAT 1 serotype crisis highlights the need for international cooperation because even strict land-border controls can be bypassed if the virus becomes windborne during an outbreak.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Kar Saathi’ platform, recently in the news, is primarily associated with:
Correct
Solution: D
Kar Saathi is a dedicated initiative of the Income Tax Department (Direct Taxes). It acts as a one-stop guidance portal that brings together resources like ITR forms, challans, and e-verification. Its primary feature is the 24×7 AI-based chatbot which handles taxpayer queries instantly. It is not related to GST (Indirect Tax) or general farmer subsidies. The platform is part of a broader technology-driven governance strategy to reduce the compliance burden on citizens and modernize the interaction between the tax department and the taxpayer, specifically looking forward to the implementation of the Income Tax Act, 2025.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Kar Saathi is a dedicated initiative of the Income Tax Department (Direct Taxes). It acts as a one-stop guidance portal that brings together resources like ITR forms, challans, and e-verification. Its primary feature is the 24×7 AI-based chatbot which handles taxpayer queries instantly. It is not related to GST (Indirect Tax) or general farmer subsidies. The platform is part of a broader technology-driven governance strategy to reduce the compliance burden on citizens and modernize the interaction between the tax department and the taxpayer, specifically looking forward to the implementation of the Income Tax Act, 2025.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsIn the expansion of Piped Natural Gas (PNG) networks, what is the significance of the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan?
Correct
Solution: C
The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan is an integrated platform for infrastructure planning. For PNG expansion, it is used to map the pipeline networks alongside other underground utilities like water, electricity, and fiber optics. This integrated planning ensures that different departments are aware of each other’s assets, reducing the chances of accidental damage during construction and speeding up the regulatory approval process. It is about coordinated governance and infrastructure synergy rather than direct financial subsidies or price regulation. This helps in achieving the goal of a gas-based economy by streamlining the “last-mile connectivity” through Galvanised Iron (GI) or copper pipes.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan is an integrated platform for infrastructure planning. For PNG expansion, it is used to map the pipeline networks alongside other underground utilities like water, electricity, and fiber optics. This integrated planning ensures that different departments are aware of each other’s assets, reducing the chances of accidental damage during construction and speeding up the regulatory approval process. It is about coordinated governance and infrastructure synergy rather than direct financial subsidies or price regulation. This helps in achieving the goal of a gas-based economy by streamlining the “last-mile connectivity” through Galvanised Iron (GI) or copper pipes.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the biology of bats:
- All species of bats are naturally blind and rely solely on echolocation to navigate.
- Echolocation involves the emission of ultrasonic calls that are typically above the range of human hearing.
- Hanging upside down provides bats with an evolutionary advantage for taking off into flight.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The biological adaptations of bats are highly specialized.
- Statement 1 is incorrect; it is a common myth that bats are blind. In reality, most bats have functional vision, and many species use light cues and visual landmarks for orientation, especially over long distances. While microbats use echolocation for precise navigation in total darkness, they are not “blind.”
- Statement 2 is correct; bats emit ultrasonic calls (ranging from 20 to 200 kHz), which bounce off objects. By decoding these echoes, they create a “sound map” of their environment. This frequency range is well above the human hearing limit (20 Hz to 20 kHz).
- Statement 3 is correct. Hanging upside down is a unique evolutionary strategy. Unlike birds, bats have relatively weak hind legs that are not suited for running to gain lift for a “dead-stop” takeoff. By hanging high up, they can simply drop into the air, using gravity to gain the initial speed required for flight. This position also keeps them safe from many ground-based predators.
- These features, combined with their 52-million-year evolutionary history, make them a fascinating subject of the SoIbats report, which calls for greater research into their role as a “biological sonar” pioneer and their co-speciation with various viruses.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The biological adaptations of bats are highly specialized.
- Statement 1 is incorrect; it is a common myth that bats are blind. In reality, most bats have functional vision, and many species use light cues and visual landmarks for orientation, especially over long distances. While microbats use echolocation for precise navigation in total darkness, they are not “blind.”
- Statement 2 is correct; bats emit ultrasonic calls (ranging from 20 to 200 kHz), which bounce off objects. By decoding these echoes, they create a “sound map” of their environment. This frequency range is well above the human hearing limit (20 Hz to 20 kHz).
- Statement 3 is correct. Hanging upside down is a unique evolutionary strategy. Unlike birds, bats have relatively weak hind legs that are not suited for running to gain lift for a “dead-stop” takeoff. By hanging high up, they can simply drop into the air, using gravity to gain the initial speed required for flight. This position also keeps them safe from many ground-based predators.
- These features, combined with their 52-million-year evolutionary history, make them a fascinating subject of the SoIbats report, which calls for greater research into their role as a “biological sonar” pioneer and their co-speciation with various viruses.
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