UPSC Editorials Quiz : 16 April 2026

Solution: C

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. A wet-bulb temperature of around 35°C is widely regarded in human physiology and climate science as the upper survivability threshold for humans under natural conditions. Beyond this level, even a healthy person resting in the shade with unlimited water cannot maintain a stable core body temperature, leading to heat stress and eventual organ failure.
• Statement II is also correct and directly explains Statement I. The human body primarily cools itself through evaporative cooling, i.e., the evaporation of sweat from the skin. However, when humidity is very high, the air is already saturated with moisture, significantly reducing the rate of evaporation. As a result, sweat does not evaporate efficiently, and the body cannot dissipate heat.
• Thus, at high wet-bulb temperatures (which combine heat and humidity), the body’s cooling system becomes ineffective. This physiological limitation is precisely why 35°C wet-bulb temperature is considered a critical threshold.

• Row 1: The Littoral zone is the shore area where light reaching the bottom allows rooted plants to grow, supporting a rich diversity of snails, insects, and amphibians.
• Row 2: The Limnetic zone is the open, sunlit water layer away from the shore; it is the primary site of photosynthesis by phytoplankton, which in turn supports the nekton (free-swimming fish).
• Row 3: The Profundal zone is the deep, dark, and cold layer below the thermocline; it is characterized by low oxygen and is dominated by decomposers (bacteria/fungi) and the benthos (bottom-dwellers) that feed on organic detritus.

Solution: B

• Article 326 of the Constitution of India provides for universal adult suffrage, forming the basis of electoral democracy in India.
• Statement 1 is correct. It reflects the essence of Article 326, which states that every citizen of India not less than 18 years of age shall be entitled to be registered as a voter, subject to certain disqualifications prescribed by law.
• Statement 2 is also correct. Article 326 explicitly allows disqualification on specific grounds such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt/illegal practices. These are further elaborated in laws like the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and 1951.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The right to be included in the electoral roll is not absolute. The state has the authority to verify, revise, and remove names from electoral rolls to maintain accuracy and integrity. For example, entries can be deleted in cases of death, change of residence, or detection of ineligibility.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam does not use thorium as the primary fuel in its core. Instead, it uses a mixed oxide (MOX) fuel composed of plutonium-239 and uranium-238. Thorium is part of India’s long-term three-stage nuclear programme, but its large-scale utilization is expected in later stages, not in the PFBR core.
• Statement 2 is correct. The PFBR has been constructed by Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI), a public sector enterprise under the Department of Atomic Energy specifically set up to implement fast breeder reactor projects.
• Statement 3 is correct. In nuclear physics, criticality refers to the condition when a fission chain reaction becomes self-sustaining, meaning each fission event causes, on average, one more fission event, maintaining a steady reaction rate.

Solution: C

• Row 1: The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) derives its powers for drug price control from the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (via the Drug Price Control Order), and functions under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
• Row 2: GIFT City is India’s first operational smart city and international financial services centre; its unified regulator is established under the IFSCA Act, 2019, and it falls under the strategic oversight of the Ministry of Finance.
• Row 3: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization constituted in 1974 under the Water Act, and it was later entrusted with powers under the Air Act, 1981, and remains the primary technical wing of the Ministry of Environment.

Solution: A

• The reforms associated with the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) in 2025 were aimed at improving accessibility, transparency, and efficiency in organ transplantation across India.
• Statement 1 is incorrect because India continues to follow an explicit consent (opt-in) framework for organ donation under the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA). There is no provision for automatic inclusion of all citizens in a national donor registry upon attaining 18 years of age. Such a system would require a major ethical and legal shift toward presumed consent, which has not been adopted in India.
• Statement 2 is correct and represents a significant reform. Earlier, patients were often restricted by state domicile requirements, which limited access to transplant waiting lists. The removal of this condition allows patients to register in any state, improving national-level organ allocation and reducing regional disparities in access to organs.
• Statement 3 is incorrect because India’s organ allocation is governed by ethical principles of equity and medical priority. Factors such as compatibility, urgency, and waiting time determine allocation. Introducing a wealth-based priority system would undermine fairness and is not part of any reform framework.