The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Delimitation Commission proposed under the 2026 legislative framework, consider the following statements:
- The Commission is chaired by the Chief Election Commissioner of India to ensure administrative neutrality.
- The orders issued by the Commission, once published in the Gazette, are subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court.
- The Commission includes Associate Members from each state who possess the power to vote on seat readjustments.
- The Commission is empowered to readjust seat allocations and redraw constituencies based on the latest demographic data.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered body whose role is central to the functioning of a democracy.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the Commission is traditionally and specifically proposed to be chaired by a serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court, not the Chief Election Commissioner. While the CEC and State Election Commissioners are ex-officio members, the judicial leadership ensures a non-partisan approach to redrawing boundaries.
- Statement 2 is incorrect due to the principle of Judicial Immunity. According to the framework, orders issued by the Commission and published in the Gazette have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court. This is to prevent endless litigation that could stall the electoral process.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Commission involves 10 associate members (5 MPs and 5 MLAs) per state to provide local context and expertise, these members lack voting rights. Their role is purely advisory.
- Statement 4 is correct as it defines the core mandate of the Commission: to ensure that the ratio between the population and the number of representatives remains uniform across constituencies, reflecting modern demographic changes that have occurred since the 1971 census.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered body whose role is central to the functioning of a democracy.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the Commission is traditionally and specifically proposed to be chaired by a serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court, not the Chief Election Commissioner. While the CEC and State Election Commissioners are ex-officio members, the judicial leadership ensures a non-partisan approach to redrawing boundaries.
- Statement 2 is incorrect due to the principle of Judicial Immunity. According to the framework, orders issued by the Commission and published in the Gazette have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court. This is to prevent endless litigation that could stall the electoral process.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Commission involves 10 associate members (5 MPs and 5 MLAs) per state to provide local context and expertise, these members lack voting rights. Their role is purely advisory.
- Statement 4 is correct as it defines the core mandate of the Commission: to ensure that the ratio between the population and the number of representatives remains uniform across constituencies, reflecting modern demographic changes that have occurred since the 1971 census.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine, consider the following statements:
- It is a live attenuated vaccine derived from a weakened strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- The vaccine is primarily administered to newborns to prevent severe forms of childhood tuberculosis such as TB meningitis.
- Apart from tuberculosis prevention, it is also utilized as an immunotherapy agent for the treatment of certain types of bladder cancer.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The BCG vaccine remains a cornerstone of global immunization programs.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the vaccine is derived from Mycobacterium bovis, which causes tuberculosis in cattle, rather than the human strain (Mycobacterium tuberculosis). Scientists Calmette and Guérin weakened this bovine strain over 13 years of research to make it safe for human use while retaining its ability to prime the immune system.
- Statement 2 is correct. The vaccine is most effective when administered to infants and young children in countries with a high prevalence of TB. Its primary success lies in preventing disseminated TB and TB meningitis in children, which are often fatal or lead to long-term disability.
- Statement 3 is correct and represents a significant “off-label” or secondary clinical use of the vaccine. BCG acts as a potent biological response modifier. When instilled into the bladder, it triggers an immune response that can destroy cancer cells, making it a standard immunotherapy for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer. This highlights the vaccine’s versatile nature in stimulating T-cells and overall immune surveillance.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The BCG vaccine remains a cornerstone of global immunization programs.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the vaccine is derived from Mycobacterium bovis, which causes tuberculosis in cattle, rather than the human strain (Mycobacterium tuberculosis). Scientists Calmette and Guérin weakened this bovine strain over 13 years of research to make it safe for human use while retaining its ability to prime the immune system.
- Statement 2 is correct. The vaccine is most effective when administered to infants and young children in countries with a high prevalence of TB. Its primary success lies in preventing disseminated TB and TB meningitis in children, which are often fatal or lead to long-term disability.
- Statement 3 is correct and represents a significant “off-label” or secondary clinical use of the vaccine. BCG acts as a potent biological response modifier. When instilled into the bladder, it triggers an immune response that can destroy cancer cells, making it a standard immunotherapy for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer. This highlights the vaccine’s versatile nature in stimulating T-cells and overall immune surveillance.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following best describes the ‘cross-protection’ mechanism associated with the BCG vaccine?
Correct
Solution: D
- In immunology, cross-protection refers to the phenomenon where an immune response to one pathogen provides some level of protection against a different, but related, pathogen. The BCG vaccine is a classic example of this.
- Option (d) is correct because BCG provides significant protection against other mycobacterial diseases such as Leprosy and Buruli ulcer. This is because the Mycobacterium bovis strain used in the vaccine shares similar protein antigens with Mycobacterium leprae.
This cross-protection is a major reason why BCG is still widely used in many developing nations where these diseases are endemic. It is important to note that while the vaccine is highly effective against severe childhood TB, its efficacy against adult pulmonary TB is variable, ranging from 0% to 80% depending on the geographic region and prior exposure to environmental mycobacteria.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- In immunology, cross-protection refers to the phenomenon where an immune response to one pathogen provides some level of protection against a different, but related, pathogen. The BCG vaccine is a classic example of this.
- Option (d) is correct because BCG provides significant protection against other mycobacterial diseases such as Leprosy and Buruli ulcer. This is because the Mycobacterium bovis strain used in the vaccine shares similar protein antigens with Mycobacterium leprae.
This cross-protection is a major reason why BCG is still widely used in many developing nations where these diseases are endemic. It is important to note that while the vaccine is highly effective against severe childhood TB, its efficacy against adult pulmonary TB is variable, ranging from 0% to 80% depending on the geographic region and prior exposure to environmental mycobacteria.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsMatch the following Certification Categories under the Cinematograph Act, 1952 (as amended in 2023):
Category Description A. UA 13+ 1. Restricted to specialized audiences like doctors or scientists B. S 2. Unrestricted public exhibition with parental guidance for children above 13 C. A 3. Unrestricted public exhibition for all age groups D. U 4. Restricted to viewers aged 18 and above Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
The 2023 amendments to the Cinematograph Act, 1952, introduced more granular age-based classifications to provide better parental guidance.
- Category U (Unrestricted) is for all ages without any restriction (D-3).
- The UA category was split into three sub-categories: UA 7+, UA 13+, and UA 16+. These are intended to caution parents that while the film is unrestricted, certain content may not be suitable for children below the specified age. Thus, UA 13+ means children above 13 can watch with parental discretion (A-2).
- Category A (Adults Only) is strictly for those 18 years and older (C-4).
- Category S (Specialized) is a less common certificate reserved for films meant for a specific professional class, such as medical professionals or researchers (B-1).
These changes bring the Indian film certification system closer to international standards like those of the MPAA in the US or the BBFC in the UK. Furthermore, films with ‘A’ or ‘S’ certificates cannot be aired on television without being re-certified for a broader audience.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The 2023 amendments to the Cinematograph Act, 1952, introduced more granular age-based classifications to provide better parental guidance.
- Category U (Unrestricted) is for all ages without any restriction (D-3).
- The UA category was split into three sub-categories: UA 7+, UA 13+, and UA 16+. These are intended to caution parents that while the film is unrestricted, certain content may not be suitable for children below the specified age. Thus, UA 13+ means children above 13 can watch with parental discretion (A-2).
- Category A (Adults Only) is strictly for those 18 years and older (C-4).
- Category S (Specialized) is a less common certificate reserved for films meant for a specific professional class, such as medical professionals or researchers (B-1).
These changes bring the Indian film certification system closer to international standards like those of the MPAA in the US or the BBFC in the UK. Furthermore, films with ‘A’ or ‘S’ certificates cannot be aired on television without being re-certified for a broader audience.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the maritime trade routes of Iran, which of the following ports are located on the coast of the Caspian Sea?
- Bandar Bushehr
- Amirabad
- Khorramshahr
- Noshahr
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Iran’s maritime geography is divided into two distinct regions: the southern coast (Persian Gulf and Sea of Oman) and the northern coast (Caspian Sea).
- Amirabad and Noshahr (2 and 4) are key commercial gateways located on the Caspian Sea coast in Northern Iran. These ports are essential for trade with Russia and other Caspian littoral states (Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, and Turkmenistan), focusing on timber, steel, and oil swap arrangements.
- Bandar Bushehr (1) is a significant commercial port located in the Northern Persian Gulf; it is historically vital for Gulf trade.
- Khorramshahr (3) is situated on the Shatt al-Arab waterway near the Iraq border, also in the south.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Iran’s maritime geography is divided into two distinct regions: the southern coast (Persian Gulf and Sea of Oman) and the northern coast (Caspian Sea).
- Amirabad and Noshahr (2 and 4) are key commercial gateways located on the Caspian Sea coast in Northern Iran. These ports are essential for trade with Russia and other Caspian littoral states (Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, and Turkmenistan), focusing on timber, steel, and oil swap arrangements.
- Bandar Bushehr (1) is a significant commercial port located in the Northern Persian Gulf; it is historically vital for Gulf trade.
- Khorramshahr (3) is situated on the Shatt al-Arab waterway near the Iraq border, also in the south.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Andaman Sea, consider the following statements:
- It is a marginal sea of the Indian Ocean that connects the Bay of Bengal with the South China Sea.
- The seabed of the Andaman Sea marks the tectonic boundary between the Burma Plate and the Sunda Plate.
- The sea is home to Barren Island, which is the only active volcano in the Indian subcontinent.
- The average depth of the sea is uniform across its basin due to the heavy siltation from the Irrawaddy River.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Andaman Sea is a complex geographic and geological entity.
- Statement 1 is correct as it serves as a vital maritime link between the Bay of Bengal (west) and the South China Sea (east) via the Strait of Malacca.
- Statement 2 is correct. The sea is tectonically active because it lies on the boundary of the Burma and Sunda plates. This high-seismic activity is responsible for major underwater earthquakes, including the one that caused the devastating 2004 tsunami.
- Statement 3 is correct. Barren Island, located in the Andaman Sea, is the only active volcano in the Indian subcontinent and a significant feature of the region’s volcanic arc.
- Statement 4 is incorrect. The depth of the Andaman Sea is not uniform. While the northern and eastern thirds are shallow (less than 600 feet) due to silt from the Irrawaddy River delta, the western part contains deep submarine valleys. East of the Andaman-Nicobar Ridge, depths can exceed 14,500 feet. This variation in bathymetry is a result of both tectonic spreading and sedimentary deposition.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Andaman Sea is a complex geographic and geological entity.
- Statement 1 is correct as it serves as a vital maritime link between the Bay of Bengal (west) and the South China Sea (east) via the Strait of Malacca.
- Statement 2 is correct. The sea is tectonically active because it lies on the boundary of the Burma and Sunda plates. This high-seismic activity is responsible for major underwater earthquakes, including the one that caused the devastating 2004 tsunami.
- Statement 3 is correct. Barren Island, located in the Andaman Sea, is the only active volcano in the Indian subcontinent and a significant feature of the region’s volcanic arc.
- Statement 4 is incorrect. The depth of the Andaman Sea is not uniform. While the northern and eastern thirds are shallow (less than 600 feet) due to silt from the Irrawaddy River delta, the western part contains deep submarine valleys. East of the Andaman-Nicobar Ridge, depths can exceed 14,500 feet. This variation in bathymetry is a result of both tectonic spreading and sedimentary deposition.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Narmada River, consider the following statements:
- It is the largest eastward-flowing river of the Indian peninsula, rising in the Maikala Range.
- The river flows through a structural rift valley between the Vindhya Range and the Satpura Range.
- The Tawa and Hiran are major left-bank and right-bank tributaries of the Narmada, respectively.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Narmada River is unique among Indian rivers.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because while it does rise in the Maikala Range at Amarkantak, it is the largest westward-flowing river of the peninsula, not eastward. Most large peninsular rivers like the Godavari and Krishna flow east into the Bay of Bengal.
- Statement 2 is correct. The Narmada is one of the few rivers in India that flows in a rift valley (a structural trough) created by tectonic activity. It is flanked by the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. This unique topography prevents it from forming a delta.
- Statement 3 is correct. The river has 41 tributaries. The Tawa is its most significant left-bank tributary, while the Hiran is a major right-bank tributary. Other notable tributaries include the Shakkar, Dudhi (left), and the Barna, Kolar (right). The river’s flow through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat makes it the “Life Line” of these states, supporting massive irrigation and hydroelectric projects like the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Narmada River is unique among Indian rivers.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because while it does rise in the Maikala Range at Amarkantak, it is the largest westward-flowing river of the peninsula, not eastward. Most large peninsular rivers like the Godavari and Krishna flow east into the Bay of Bengal.
- Statement 2 is correct. The Narmada is one of the few rivers in India that flows in a rift valley (a structural trough) created by tectonic activity. It is flanked by the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. This unique topography prevents it from forming a delta.
- Statement 3 is correct. The river has 41 tributaries. The Tawa is its most significant left-bank tributary, while the Hiran is a major right-bank tributary. Other notable tributaries include the Shakkar, Dudhi (left), and the Barna, Kolar (right). The river’s flow through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat makes it the “Life Line” of these states, supporting massive irrigation and hydroelectric projects like the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the best description of ‘Malwan’, recently in the news?
Correct
Solution: D
- Malwan is a high-tech, waterjet-propelled warship specifically designed for Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) in Shallow Water Craft (SWC). Its primary mission is to provide the Indian Navy with advanced capabilities for underwater surveillance and combat in littoral zones (near-shore areas). These are regions where larger submarines or traditional deep-water ships might face operational difficulties.
- The vessel is the second of eight such craft being built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL). Unlike traditional ships, it uses Waterjets for propulsion, which allows for extreme maneuverability in shallow waters. It is armed with specialized offensive weaponry, including torpedoes and anti-submarine rockets.
- The project is a major milestone for ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’, with over 80% indigenous content.
- Statement (a) is incorrect as it refers to the Matsya-6000; (c) is incorrect as Malwan is a Navy warship, not specifically Coast Guard solar-powered; and (b) describes vessels like the Sagar Nidhi or specialized research ships, whereas Malwan is a combatant vessel. Its historical legacy links back to the maritime tradition of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and a previous minesweeper of the same name.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Malwan is a high-tech, waterjet-propelled warship specifically designed for Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) in Shallow Water Craft (SWC). Its primary mission is to provide the Indian Navy with advanced capabilities for underwater surveillance and combat in littoral zones (near-shore areas). These are regions where larger submarines or traditional deep-water ships might face operational difficulties.
- The vessel is the second of eight such craft being built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL). Unlike traditional ships, it uses Waterjets for propulsion, which allows for extreme maneuverability in shallow waters. It is armed with specialized offensive weaponry, including torpedoes and anti-submarine rockets.
- The project is a major milestone for ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’, with over 80% indigenous content.
- Statement (a) is incorrect as it refers to the Matsya-6000; (c) is incorrect as Malwan is a Navy warship, not specifically Coast Guard solar-powered; and (b) describes vessels like the Sagar Nidhi or specialized research ships, whereas Malwan is a combatant vessel. Its historical legacy links back to the maritime tradition of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and a previous minesweeper of the same name.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsRegarding the Internationally Recognized Certificate of Compliance (IRCC), which of the following is correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The IRCC is a vital tool under the Nagoya Protocol because it provides a “clean legal title” to a user (like a researcher or a pharmaceutical company). This legal certainty is often mandatory when applying for patents or seeking to commercialize a product derived from a genetic resource. It proves the resource was obtained following the provider country’s laws.
- Statement (a) is incorrect; the IRCC is an electronic permit generated through the ABS Clearing-House, an IT platform managed by the CBD Secretariat, not the UNEP.
- Statement (c) is incorrect because the IRCC applies to all genetic resources (terrestrial, aquatic, etc.) within the national jurisdiction of a party to the Nagoya Protocol, not just marine resources in international waters (which are governed by different treaties).
Statement (b) is incorrect as the IRCC is a mechanism of the Nagoya Protocol (2010), not the Montreal Protocol (1987). India’s status as a global leader in issuing IRCCs (over 56% of the world’s total) demonstrates the efficiency of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) in facilitating research and development while ensuring that the benefits are shared fairly with local communities.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The IRCC is a vital tool under the Nagoya Protocol because it provides a “clean legal title” to a user (like a researcher or a pharmaceutical company). This legal certainty is often mandatory when applying for patents or seeking to commercialize a product derived from a genetic resource. It proves the resource was obtained following the provider country’s laws.
- Statement (a) is incorrect; the IRCC is an electronic permit generated through the ABS Clearing-House, an IT platform managed by the CBD Secretariat, not the UNEP.
- Statement (c) is incorrect because the IRCC applies to all genetic resources (terrestrial, aquatic, etc.) within the national jurisdiction of a party to the Nagoya Protocol, not just marine resources in international waters (which are governed by different treaties).
Statement (b) is incorrect as the IRCC is a mechanism of the Nagoya Protocol (2010), not the Montreal Protocol (1987). India’s status as a global leader in issuing IRCCs (over 56% of the world’s total) demonstrates the efficiency of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) in facilitating research and development while ensuring that the benefits are shared fairly with local communities.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is a primary objective of the Artemis II mission?
Correct
Solution: B
- The primary objective of Artemis II is to serve as a test-ride mission.
- Statement (b) is correct because the mission’s core purpose is to test and validate the Space Launch System (SLS) rocket and the Orion spacecraft’s life-support systems while humans are actually inside. This is a critical safety step before NASA attempts to land humans on the Moon in later missions.
- Statement (a) and (d) are incorrect; while they are goals of the broader lunar exploration landscape (including missions like Chandrayaan-3 and future Artemis landings), Artemis II will not land on the surface or deploy a rover.
Statement (c) refers to the Lunar Gateway, which is a separate component of the Artemis program involving an orbital station, but Artemis II is a flight mission, not a construction mission for the Gateway. Artemis II is unique because it uses a powerful SLS rocket to reach the Moon in just three to four days, unlike uncrewed missions that use fuel-efficient but slower trajectories.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The primary objective of Artemis II is to serve as a test-ride mission.
- Statement (b) is correct because the mission’s core purpose is to test and validate the Space Launch System (SLS) rocket and the Orion spacecraft’s life-support systems while humans are actually inside. This is a critical safety step before NASA attempts to land humans on the Moon in later missions.
- Statement (a) and (d) are incorrect; while they are goals of the broader lunar exploration landscape (including missions like Chandrayaan-3 and future Artemis landings), Artemis II will not land on the surface or deploy a rover.
Statement (c) refers to the Lunar Gateway, which is a separate component of the Artemis program involving an orbital station, but Artemis II is a flight mission, not a construction mission for the Gateway. Artemis II is unique because it uses a powerful SLS rocket to reach the Moon in just three to four days, unlike uncrewed missions that use fuel-efficient but slower trajectories.
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