UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 April 2026

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the “Fund of Funds” model implies an indirect investment approach. The government does not pick individual startups; instead, it invests in Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), which then use their expertise to select and fund startups.
• Statement 2 is correct as the primary objective is to bridge the funding gap by providing a government commitment that encourages private institutional investors to contribute their capital, thereby multiplying the impact of the ₹10,000 crore corpus.
• Statement 3 is correct; the notification of FoF 2.0 on April 13, 2026, aligns the disbursement and management of the ₹10,000 crore corpus with the 16th and 17th Finance Commission cycles, ensuring long-term fiscal planning.
• Statement 4 is correct as a strict governance safeguard requires that the AIFs receiving capital must invest specifically in DPIIT-recognized startups, ensuring that the fiscal stimulus targets the intended demographic of innovative and scalable Indian businesses.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct because Ambedkar’s leadership in the Drafting Committee and his lifelong struggle for the marginalized earned him the title of the “Father of the Indian Constitution.” He was instrumental in embedding the principles of equality, liberty, and fraternity into the supreme law of the land.
• Statement-II is correct and provides the underlying reason why he is considered the architect. His role was not merely secretarial; he actively harmonized conflicting ideologies—ranging from Gandhian ideals to modern liberal rights—to create a functional document. The inclusion of Article 17, which abolished the practice of untouchability, was a direct manifestation of his social reformist agenda. By providing the legal and constitutional framework for affirmative action (reservations for Depressed Classes), he ensured that the Constitution was not just a political document but a tool for social engineering.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct as the e-SafeHER programme has set a target to empower one million women across rural India with cybersecurity training by the year 2029.
• Statement II is correct because the Cyber Sakhi model is the operational core of the programme; it trains community members to act as peer educators, which directly explains how the programme intends to reach the vast target of one million women at the grassroots level.
• However, Statement III is incorrect. While the programme leverages Self-Help Groups (SHGs), it is anchored and managed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) under the Information Security Education and Awareness (ISEA) framework, not the Ministry of Rural Development.
• Therefore, only Statement II is correct and it is this peer-led model that explains the strategy to achieve the goal mentioned in Statement I.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because a windfall tax is temporary and dynamic by nature. It is not a standard corporate tax but a reactive measure imposed when companies earn “windfall gains”—extraordinary profits caused by external events (like geopolitical tensions in West Asia) rather than internal business improvements. It is reduced or removed if global prices fall.
• Statement 2 is correct; the Indian government reviews these rates every two weeks. This flexibility ensures that the tax remains fair and does not penalize companies if international margins shrink suddenly.
• Statement 3 is correct as the tax is levied as Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED). By targeting exports, the government aims to ensure that domestic fuel availability is prioritized and that the massive profits earned from high global prices are shared with the public exchequer to fund subsidies. This helps insulate the domestic consumer from the full volatility of global oil markets.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct as DUSTLIK is the premier bilateral training event between India and Uzbekistan. It signifies India’s “Connect Central Asia” policy and military cooperation with a key regional player.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because the exercise is land-based. Uzbekistan is a doubly landlocked country; thus, the training focuses on land navigation, strike missions, and seizure of bases rather than maritime operations.
• The 2026 edition at the Gurumsaray Field Training Area emphasizes “Joint Special Operations” to neutralize “Unlawful Armed Groups.” The semi-mountainous terrain of Uzbekistan provides a realistic environment for both forces to share Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs). The exercise also involves Air Force components, highlighting inter-service synergy in complex tactical environments.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct; Raimona’s location at the confluence of the Indo-Burma and Eastern Himalayan hotspots makes it a biodiversity treasure.
• Statement 2 is correct; its connectivity with Phibsoo and Buxa creates a “Transboundary Conservation Landscape,” which is vital for long-ranging species like Asian elephants. This allows for genetic exchange and seasonal migration.
• Statement 3 is incorrect; Raimona was notified very recently in 2021. The first national park in India was Jim Corbett (then Hailey) in 1936, and many others were notified long before Raimona.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. Ambedkar was a trained economist whose work on the evolution of provincial finance in British India laid the groundwork for modern fiscal federalism.
• Statement II is correct; he argued for an independent mechanism to manage the sharing of resources, which directly led to the constitutional provision for the Finance Commission. This explains how he shaped the federal structure.
• However, Statement III is incorrect. In his work The Problem of the Rupee, Ambedkar actually critiqued the gold standard and suggested a more flexible gold exchange standard or managed currency to suit the Indian context, rather than a “purely gold-based” one.

Solution: D

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the organization responsible for the ‘Payments Vision 2028’ This document serves as a comprehensive policy framework to guide the future of India’s digital payment systems. It follows the previous 4Es (Everyone, Everywhere, Every time) vision of 2025, but shifts the focus toward deepening consumer trust and ensuring global dominance in the payments sector.
• Key goals of the 2028 vision include making the payment ecosystem more secure, interoperable, and resilient against cyber threats. Significant proposals within the document include the Payments Switching Service (PaSS) for bank account portability, enhanced user controls like Switch On/Off facilities for all digital modes, and a Shared Liability Framework to protect users from unauthorized transactions.
• By setting high standards and benchmarking against 15 global indicators, the RBI aims to maintain India’s position as a world leader in real-time payments while fostering innovation through initiatives like the Perpetual Regulatory Sandbox for small payment system providers.

Solution: D

• The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) has a much broader mandate than just military oversight. All four statements are correct.
• Statement 1 is a core function; the CCS is the final authority for major defense procurement and acquisitions.
• Statement 2 reflects its role in foreign affairs, where it formulates strategies to respond to international conflicts (like the West Asia crisis) that impact India.
• Statement 3 is highlighted by the committee’s recent focus on economic mitigation; it discusses interventions across diverse sectors like agriculture, shipping, aviation, and MSMEs to ensure they remain resilient against global shocks.
• Statement 4 pertains to supply chain security, where the CCS ensures the steady flow of essential commodities (LPG, fertilisers) to prevent domestic instability. This comprehensive approach shows that the CCS views national security through multiple lenses: military, diplomatic, and economic. It provides a centralized platform for the Prime Minister and senior ministers to make rapid, coordinated decisions that safeguard the country’s overall interests during times of global volatility.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct; Raja Ravi Varma (1848–1906) is traditionally honored as the father of modern Indian art because he pioneered a shift away from traditional folk and courtly styles toward a more realistic and widely accessible form of art.
• Statement-II is also correct and provides the logical explanation for Statement-I. His “modernity” was defined precisely by his ability to master European academic realism—including techniques like perspective (creating depth) and chiaroscuro (the treatment of light and shade)—and apply them to quintessentially Indian subjects from the Mahabharata, Ramayana, and Puranas.
• This fusion was revolutionary for the time and bridged the gap between ancient Indian traditions and the modern era’s evolving visual sensibilities. By bringing these high-level techniques to Indian themes and later mass-producing them, he changed the visual landscape of India. His work not only shaped the popular consciousness of Hindu deities but also influenced the aesthetic foundations of the Indian film industry. Thus, his technical innovation (Statement II) is what earned him the title mentioned in Statement I.