UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 14 April 2026 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
With reference to the election and removal of the Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Electoral College for the election of the Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of Parliament, unlike the President’s electoral college which includes only elected members.
Statement II: The Vice-President can be removed from office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
Statement III: The Constitution lists ‘violation of the Constitution’ as the specific ground for the removal of the Vice-President.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement I is Correct: The VP is elected by all members (elected + nominated) of both Houses of Parliament. The President is elected only by elected members of Parliament and State Assemblies.
- Statement II is Incorrect: The removal resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by an Effective Majority (majority of the then members, i.e., Total Seats minus Vacancies) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a Simple Majority. It is not a “Special Majority” (2/3rds) as required for Presidential impeachment or Article 368 amendments.
- Statement III is Incorrect: The Constitution does not specify any ground for the removal of the Vice-President. The phrase “violation of the Constitution” applies exclusively to the impeachment of the President (Article 61).
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement I is Correct: The VP is elected by all members (elected + nominated) of both Houses of Parliament. The President is elected only by elected members of Parliament and State Assemblies.
- Statement II is Incorrect: The removal resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by an Effective Majority (majority of the then members, i.e., Total Seats minus Vacancies) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a Simple Majority. It is not a “Special Majority” (2/3rds) as required for Presidential impeachment or Article 368 amendments.
- Statement III is Incorrect: The Constitution does not specify any ground for the removal of the Vice-President. The phrase “violation of the Constitution” applies exclusively to the impeachment of the President (Article 61).
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the President’s ordinance-making power under Article 123:
- An ordinance can be promulgated by the President only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session.
- The satisfaction of the President regarding the necessity of an ordinance is immune from judicial review.
- An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but cannot amend the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is Incorrect:An ordinance can be promulgated when either of the two Houses is not in session. For a law to be passed, both Houses must agree. If even one is absent, the legislative process is paralyzed, justifying an ordinance.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect:The 38th Amendment Act (1975) made the President’s satisfaction final and conclusive, but the 44th Amendment Act (1978) deleted this provision. In C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970) and D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987), the Supreme Court ruled that the President’s satisfaction is open to judicial review on grounds of mala fides.
- Statement 3 is Correct:An ordinance is “law” under Article 13. It has the same force as an Act but is subject to the same limitations (cannot violate Fundamental Rights). It cannot serve as a Constitutional Amendment because Article 368 requires a specific procedure in Parliament.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is Incorrect:An ordinance can be promulgated when either of the two Houses is not in session. For a law to be passed, both Houses must agree. If even one is absent, the legislative process is paralyzed, justifying an ordinance.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect:The 38th Amendment Act (1975) made the President’s satisfaction final and conclusive, but the 44th Amendment Act (1978) deleted this provision. In C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970) and D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987), the Supreme Court ruled that the President’s satisfaction is open to judicial review on grounds of mala fides.
- Statement 3 is Correct:An ordinance is “law” under Article 13. It has the same force as an Act but is subject to the same limitations (cannot violate Fundamental Rights). It cannot serve as a Constitutional Amendment because Article 368 requires a specific procedure in Parliament.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Which of the following regarding the Pardoning Powers (Article 72 and Article 161) are correctly matched?
Feature President (Art 72) Governor (Art 161) 1. Death Sentence Can grant pardon Can suspend, remit or commute, but cannot pardon 2. Court Martial Can pardon Can pardon if the offence is against state law 3. Concurrent List Has concurrent power Has concurrent power 4. Judicial Review Subject to limited review Immune from judicial review Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- The pardoning powers of the President under Article 72 and the Governor under Article 161 form an important part of the constitutional framework, reflecting the principle of mercy in criminal justice. In the case of death sentences, the President has the authority to grant a full pardon, whereas the Governor can only suspend, remit, or commute the sentence but cannot grant a pardon. Hence, this distinction makes the first pair correctly matched.
- With respect to Court Martial cases, the President alone has the power to grant pardon. The Governor has no jurisdiction over such cases, even if the offence relates to a subject under state law. Therefore, the second pair is incorrect.
- Regarding matters in the Concurrent List, both the President and the Governor can exercise pardoning powers depending on the extent of their respective executive powers. This creates a functional overlap, making the third pair correct.
- Finally, both authorities are subject to judicial review. The Supreme Court in Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh clarified that clemency powers are not absolute and can be challenged on grounds like arbitrariness or mala fide intent. Hence, the fourth pair is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The pardoning powers of the President under Article 72 and the Governor under Article 161 form an important part of the constitutional framework, reflecting the principle of mercy in criminal justice. In the case of death sentences, the President has the authority to grant a full pardon, whereas the Governor can only suspend, remit, or commute the sentence but cannot grant a pardon. Hence, this distinction makes the first pair correctly matched.
- With respect to Court Martial cases, the President alone has the power to grant pardon. The Governor has no jurisdiction over such cases, even if the offence relates to a subject under state law. Therefore, the second pair is incorrect.
- Regarding matters in the Concurrent List, both the President and the Governor can exercise pardoning powers depending on the extent of their respective executive powers. This creates a functional overlap, making the third pair correct.
- Finally, both authorities are subject to judicial review. The Supreme Court in Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh clarified that clemency powers are not absolute and can be challenged on grounds like arbitrariness or mala fide intent. Hence, the fourth pair is incorrect.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Council of Ministers (CoM):
Statement-I: The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
Statement-II: The immunity provided under Article 74(2) extends to the factual material on the basis of which the advice was tendered.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement-I is Correct:Article 74(2) explicitly bars courts from inquiring into what advice was tendered. This protects Cabinet confidentiality.
- Statement-II is Incorrect:In the R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court clarified that while the advice is protected, the material (reports, data) on which the advice was based is not immune. The court can examine whether the material was relevant to the decision (e.g., imposing President’s Rule).
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement-I is Correct:Article 74(2) explicitly bars courts from inquiring into what advice was tendered. This protects Cabinet confidentiality.
- Statement-II is Incorrect:In the R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court clarified that while the advice is protected, the material (reports, data) on which the advice was based is not immune. The court can examine whether the material was relevant to the decision (e.g., imposing President’s Rule).
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the Cabinet Committees, consider the following statements:
- They are not mentioned in the Constitution but are established under the Rules of Business provided by Article 77(3).
- The Prime Minister is the Chairman of all Cabinet Committees to ensure centralized control.
- Ministers of State (Independent Charge) cannot be members of these committees.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Cabinet Committees are an essential feature of India’s executive functioning, designed to streamline decision-making within the government. They are not mentioned in the Constitution and derive their authority from the Rules of Business framed under Article 77(3). These rules enable the President to allocate business among ministers and facilitate the creation of specialized committees to handle specific policy areas efficiently. Therefore, the first statement is correct.
- The second statement is incorrect because, although the Prime Minister heads key committees such as the Cabinet Committee on Security and the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, not all Cabinet Committees are chaired by the Prime Minister. In some cases, senior Cabinet Ministers are appointed as chairpersons depending on the nature of the committee’s work.
- The third statement is also incorrect. Ministers of State with Independent Charge are not barred from being members of Cabinet Committees. Their inclusion depends on the relevance of their portfolio and administrative requirements. Hence, there is flexibility in the composition of these committees.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Cabinet Committees are an essential feature of India’s executive functioning, designed to streamline decision-making within the government. They are not mentioned in the Constitution and derive their authority from the Rules of Business framed under Article 77(3). These rules enable the President to allocate business among ministers and facilitate the creation of specialized committees to handle specific policy areas efficiently. Therefore, the first statement is correct.
- The second statement is incorrect because, although the Prime Minister heads key committees such as the Cabinet Committee on Security and the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, not all Cabinet Committees are chaired by the Prime Minister. In some cases, senior Cabinet Ministers are appointed as chairpersons depending on the nature of the committee’s work.
- The third statement is also incorrect. Ministers of State with Independent Charge are not barred from being members of Cabinet Committees. Their inclusion depends on the relevance of their portfolio and administrative requirements. Hence, there is flexibility in the composition of these committees.
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