Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the “Classification of Droughts” in India:
- A “Hydrological Drought” occurs when the depletion of surface and groundwater levels leads to a significant shortage of water for reservoirs and irrigation.
- “Agricultural Drought” is exclusively caused by a 50% or more deficit in annual rainfall, leading to immediate crop failure.
- “Socio-economic Drought” arises when water scarcity starts affecting livelihoods, food supply, and employment in the community.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Drought is a relative phenomenon, and its classification depends on the specific variables of water deficit.
- Statement 1 is correct; hydrological drought is characterized by the impact on water bodies and lags behind meteorological drought.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; Agricultural drought is defined by soil moisture deficit relative to plant water demand, which can occur even with a moderate rainfall deficit if the distribution is poor or if high temperatures increase evaporation.
- Statement 3 is correct; it tracks how physical water shortfalls ripple through the socioeconomic system, affecting income and migration.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Drought is a relative phenomenon, and its classification depends on the specific variables of water deficit.
- Statement 1 is correct; hydrological drought is characterized by the impact on water bodies and lags behind meteorological drought.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; Agricultural drought is defined by soil moisture deficit relative to plant water demand, which can occur even with a moderate rainfall deficit if the distribution is poor or if high temperatures increase evaporation.
- Statement 3 is correct; it tracks how physical water shortfalls ripple through the socioeconomic system, affecting income and migration.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam and India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme, consider the following columns:
Programme Stage Key Component/Material Role/Function 1. Stage I Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor Uses natural uranium to produce electricity and Plutonium-239 2. Stage II Fast Breeder Reactor Uses MOX fuel and liquid sodium to “breed” more fuel than it burns 3. Stage III Advanced Heavy Water Reactor Uses vast Thorium-232 reserves to produce Uranium-233 How many of the above rows are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
- India’s nuclear doctrine, envisioned by Homi Bhabha, reached a critical milestone on April 6, 2026, when the PFBR at Kalpakkam attained first criticality.
- Row 1 is correctly matched: Stage I utilizes PHWRs which run on natural uranium (U-238) and produce Plutonium-239 as a byproduct in the spent fuel.
- Row 2 is correctly matched: The PFBR represents Stage II. It uses Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel (Plutonium from Stage I + Uranium-238) and liquid sodium as a coolant. It is a “breeder” because the fast neutrons convert the U-238 blanket into fresh Plutonium-239.
- Row 3 is correctly matched: Stage III is the final goal of self-reliance, utilizing India’s massive thorium reserves. Thorium-232 is not fissile itself but is converted into Uranium-233 inside the reactor (transmutation), which then serves as the fuel for long-term energy security. The attainment of criticality at Kalpakkam officially signals India’s entry into Stage II.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- India’s nuclear doctrine, envisioned by Homi Bhabha, reached a critical milestone on April 6, 2026, when the PFBR at Kalpakkam attained first criticality.
- Row 1 is correctly matched: Stage I utilizes PHWRs which run on natural uranium (U-238) and produce Plutonium-239 as a byproduct in the spent fuel.
- Row 2 is correctly matched: The PFBR represents Stage II. It uses Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel (Plutonium from Stage I + Uranium-238) and liquid sodium as a coolant. It is a “breeder” because the fast neutrons convert the U-238 blanket into fresh Plutonium-239.
- Row 3 is correctly matched: Stage III is the final goal of self-reliance, utilizing India’s massive thorium reserves. Thorium-232 is not fissile itself but is converted into Uranium-233 inside the reactor (transmutation), which then serves as the fuel for long-term energy security. The attainment of criticality at Kalpakkam officially signals India’s entry into Stage II.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) receiving “Deemed to be University” status in 2026, consider the following statements:
- The status allows NCERT to independently offer undergraduate and doctoral degrees.
- The NCERT is now permitted to function as a commercial entity to generate profits for educational research.
- The new status covers NCERT along with its network of Regional Institutes of Education (RIEs).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Ministry of Education officially notified the NCERT as an “institution deemed to be a university” on March 30, 2026.
- Statement 1 is correct; this status transforms the NCERT from a curriculum-developing body into a degree-granting institution, allowing it to offer diploma, undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programmes
- Statement 2 is incorrect; the notification explicitly mandates that the NCERT “shall not engage or indulge in any activities that are of commercial and profit-making in nature”.
- Statement 3 is correct; the deemed university status is not limited to the Delhi headquarters but extends to its six constituent units, including the Regional Institutes of Education (RIEs) in Ajmer, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Mysuru, and Shillong, as well as the vocational institute in Bhopal. This move is intended to strengthen teacher education and research in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Ministry of Education officially notified the NCERT as an “institution deemed to be a university” on March 30, 2026.
- Statement 1 is correct; this status transforms the NCERT from a curriculum-developing body into a degree-granting institution, allowing it to offer diploma, undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programmes
- Statement 2 is incorrect; the notification explicitly mandates that the NCERT “shall not engage or indulge in any activities that are of commercial and profit-making in nature”.
- Statement 3 is correct; the deemed university status is not limited to the Delhi headquarters but extends to its six constituent units, including the Regional Institutes of Education (RIEs) in Ajmer, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Mysuru, and Shillong, as well as the vocational institute in Bhopal. This move is intended to strengthen teacher education and research in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
With reference to the rights of arrested persons, consider the following statements:
- Article 22 of the Constitution mandates that an arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest and produced before a magistrate within 24 hours.
- The Supreme Court in D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) laid down mandatory procedures to prevent custodial torture.
- The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has the constitutional authority to override judicial magistrate rulings in cases of police impunity.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct; Article 22 provides fundamental safeguards, including the right to be informed of the crime and the 24-hour production rule before a magistrate.
- Statement 2 is correct; the K. Basu (1997) case is the landmark judgment that expanded these rights by providing a checklist of procedures (like the right to have a relative informed) specifically to curb custodial torture.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; while the NHRC and State Human Rights Commissions are empowered to investigate rights violations and act as “guardrails,” they do not have constitutional authority to override judicial rulings. They are largely recommendatory bodies, and judicial magistrates remain the “first and most important line of defense” for the citizen.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct; Article 22 provides fundamental safeguards, including the right to be informed of the crime and the 24-hour production rule before a magistrate.
- Statement 2 is correct; the K. Basu (1997) case is the landmark judgment that expanded these rights by providing a checklist of procedures (like the right to have a relative informed) specifically to curb custodial torture.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; while the NHRC and State Human Rights Commissions are empowered to investigate rights violations and act as “guardrails,” they do not have constitutional authority to override judicial rulings. They are largely recommendatory bodies, and judicial magistrates remain the “first and most important line of defense” for the citizen.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
In the context of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India is constitutionally barred from deleting names from the electoral roll once a Special Intensive Revision has commenced.
- Once an electoral roll is “frozen” after judicial scrutiny, no person deleted from the roll has a legal right to appeal before the next election cycle.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Election Commission of India is not barred from deleting names during a Special Intensive Revision (SIR). In fact, one of the core purposes of SIR is to clean and update electoral rolls by removing duplicate, shifted, or deceased voters. The Commission exercises this power under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, which allows continuous revision of rolls, including deletions after due verification and procedural safeguards.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect. Even after electoral rolls are “frozen” (i.e., finalized before elections), affected individuals retain the right to appeal or seek correction. Legal remedies exist through electoral registration officers and higher authorities under statutory provisions. Additionally, constitutional remedies (such as approaching courts) remain available. Therefore, there is no absolute bar on appeals merely because the roll has been frozen.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Election Commission of India is not barred from deleting names during a Special Intensive Revision (SIR). In fact, one of the core purposes of SIR is to clean and update electoral rolls by removing duplicate, shifted, or deceased voters. The Commission exercises this power under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, which allows continuous revision of rolls, including deletions after due verification and procedural safeguards.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect. Even after electoral rolls are “frozen” (i.e., finalized before elections), affected individuals retain the right to appeal or seek correction. Legal remedies exist through electoral registration officers and higher authorities under statutory provisions. Additionally, constitutional remedies (such as approaching courts) remain available. Therefore, there is no absolute bar on appeals merely because the roll has been frozen.
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