The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsIn the context of nuclear physics and reactor operations, which of the following best describes the state of ‘Criticality’?
Correct
Solution: A
- Criticality is a fundamental concept in nuclear engineering, representing a stable, self-sustaining fission chain reaction. It does not refer to the maximum power output (which is the rated capacity) but rather to the neutron economy of the reactor core. At the point of criticality, the “effective multiplication factor” (k) is exactly 1. This means that for every fission event, exactly one resulting neutron goes on to cause another fission event. The rest of the neutrons are either absorbed by non-fissionable materials or leak out of the system.
Achieving criticality is a precise engineering feat because it proves that the core geometry, fuel enrichment, and control rod configurations are perfectly balanced. For the PFBR, attaining criticality is the final validation of the indigenous design before it begins to supply power to the grid. It signifies that the reactor can maintain a steady-state power level safely. If the number of neutrons produced exceeds the losses, the reactor becomes “supercritical,” and if it falls below, it is “subcritical.”
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Criticality is a fundamental concept in nuclear engineering, representing a stable, self-sustaining fission chain reaction. It does not refer to the maximum power output (which is the rated capacity) but rather to the neutron economy of the reactor core. At the point of criticality, the “effective multiplication factor” (k) is exactly 1. This means that for every fission event, exactly one resulting neutron goes on to cause another fission event. The rest of the neutrons are either absorbed by non-fissionable materials or leak out of the system.
Achieving criticality is a precise engineering feat because it proves that the core geometry, fuel enrichment, and control rod configurations are perfectly balanced. For the PFBR, attaining criticality is the final validation of the indigenous design before it begins to supply power to the grid. It signifies that the reactor can maintain a steady-state power level safely. If the number of neutrons produced exceeds the losses, the reactor becomes “supercritical,” and if it falls below, it is “subcritical.”
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE):
- It is the first formal mechanism in India to track the unincorporated segment of the service economy annually.
- The survey uses the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) database as the primary sampling frame.
- The legal mandate for the survey is derived from the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- The ASISSE is a landmark statistical exercise launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
- Statement 1 is incorrect because ASISSE specifically targets the incorporated (registered) services sector, such as companies registered under the Companies Act and LLPs. The unincorporated sector is covered by a separate survey known as ASUSE.
- Statement 2 is correct; by utilizing the GSTN database, the NSO can identify formal enterprises effectively, ensuring a granular and accurate data set. This reflects the increasing formalization of the Indian economy.
- Statement 3 is correct as the survey is conducted under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008, which provides the legal framework for data gathering, and it is also aligned with the updated provisions of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023. This survey is critical because the services sector contributes more than 50% to India’s GDP, yet there has historically been a data gap in the formal non-agricultural economy. The ASISSE aims to bridge this gap, providing policymakers with reliable data on employment and economic indicators.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The ASISSE is a landmark statistical exercise launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
- Statement 1 is incorrect because ASISSE specifically targets the incorporated (registered) services sector, such as companies registered under the Companies Act and LLPs. The unincorporated sector is covered by a separate survey known as ASUSE.
- Statement 2 is correct; by utilizing the GSTN database, the NSO can identify formal enterprises effectively, ensuring a granular and accurate data set. This reflects the increasing formalization of the Indian economy.
- Statement 3 is correct as the survey is conducted under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008, which provides the legal framework for data gathering, and it is also aligned with the updated provisions of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023. This survey is critical because the services sector contributes more than 50% to India’s GDP, yet there has historically been a data gap in the formal non-agricultural economy. The ASISSE aims to bridge this gap, providing policymakers with reliable data on employment and economic indicators.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Internet Protocols and censorship in India, consider the following statements:
- DNS Poisoning involves an ISP server returning a false IP address to prevent access to a blocked site.
- Deep Packet Inspection (DPI) is a basic, low-cost method that filters requests based solely on the URL.
- Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, provides the government the power to issue blocking orders for national security reasons.
- HTTP/HTTPS are protocols specifically designed for the reassembly of data packets in the correct sequence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct; DNS Poisoning is a common censorship technique where the DNS (the internet’s “phonebook”) is manipulated to redirect users away from a blocked domain.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because Deep Packet Inspection (DPI) is actually a highly advanced and expensive method. Unlike simple URL filtering, DPI analyzes the actual content of the data packets, allowing for more granular blocking of specific types of traffic.
- Statement 3 is correct; Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, is the primary legal tool used by the Indian government to block online content in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, and public order.
- Statement 4 is incorrect; while HTTP/HTTPS are the foundations of web data exchange, the protocol responsible for ensuring that data packets are delivered reliably and in the correct sequence is TCP (Transmission Control Protocol).
Understanding these protocols is vital in the context of digital rights and the technical implementation of government regulations. The recent study highlighting inconsistencies among ISPs shows the complexity of enforcing such regimes across different network architectures.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct; DNS Poisoning is a common censorship technique where the DNS (the internet’s “phonebook”) is manipulated to redirect users away from a blocked domain.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because Deep Packet Inspection (DPI) is actually a highly advanced and expensive method. Unlike simple URL filtering, DPI analyzes the actual content of the data packets, allowing for more granular blocking of specific types of traffic.
- Statement 3 is correct; Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, is the primary legal tool used by the Indian government to block online content in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, and public order.
- Statement 4 is incorrect; while HTTP/HTTPS are the foundations of web data exchange, the protocol responsible for ensuring that data packets are delivered reliably and in the correct sequence is TCP (Transmission Control Protocol).
Understanding these protocols is vital in the context of digital rights and the technical implementation of government regulations. The recent study highlighting inconsistencies among ISPs shows the complexity of enforcing such regimes across different network architectures.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Softshell Turtle:
Statement I: The Indian Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia gangetica) is accorded the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Statement II: These turtles play a crucial ecological role as scavengers by consuming organic waste and dead matter in river systems like the Ganges.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: B
- Both statements are individually correct, but Statement II is not the reason why Statement I exists.
- Statement I is correct because the Indian Softshell Turtle is listed under Schedule I of the WPA, 1972, placing it on par with the tiger in terms of legal protection due to its “Endangered” status and the threat of poaching.
- Statement II is also correct; as omnivorous scavengers, these turtles are vital for maintaining the health of freshwater ecosystems. They clean rivers by consuming carcasses and organic debris, which is why their presence is an indicator of a healthy river system.
- However, the legal protection (Schedule I) is granted based on the threat perception, population decline, and smuggling risks (often driven by the “20-claw myth”), rather than solely because of their role as scavengers. Scavenging is a biological function, whereas Schedule I is a legal status determined by conservation necessity. They are also protected under CITES Appendix I.
- The recent rescue in Greater Noida highlights the persistent threat of illegal trade in this species despite its high level of protection.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Both statements are individually correct, but Statement II is not the reason why Statement I exists.
- Statement I is correct because the Indian Softshell Turtle is listed under Schedule I of the WPA, 1972, placing it on par with the tiger in terms of legal protection due to its “Endangered” status and the threat of poaching.
- Statement II is also correct; as omnivorous scavengers, these turtles are vital for maintaining the health of freshwater ecosystems. They clean rivers by consuming carcasses and organic debris, which is why their presence is an indicator of a healthy river system.
- However, the legal protection (Schedule I) is granted based on the threat perception, population decline, and smuggling risks (often driven by the “20-claw myth”), rather than solely because of their role as scavengers. Scavenging is a biological function, whereas Schedule I is a legal status determined by conservation necessity. They are also protected under CITES Appendix I.
- The recent rescue in Greater Noida highlights the persistent threat of illegal trade in this species despite its high level of protection.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsHistorically, Amaravati was a major hub for trade with the Roman Empire and Southeast Asia. Which of the following evidence best supports this conceptual understanding?
Correct
Solution: D
- The conceptual clarity regarding Amaravati’s historical global status comes from archaeological and numismatic evidence. While the city is ancient, its status as a global trade hub is specifically validated by the discovery of Roman coins in the region, indicating active maritime and overland trade routes during the Satavahana period. This trade linked the Indian subcontinent with the Mediterranean world and Southeast Asian kingdoms.
- Statement a is incorrect because while Ashokan edicts exist elsewhere, the Roman trade connection is a hallmark of the later Satavahana era.
- Statement c is incorrect as “Aramavati” is a later descriptive name (“City of Gardens”) rather than a Vedic reference.
- Statement b refers to the modern potential of the city, not its ancient history. The historical glory of Amaravati as a center of learning (Buddhism) and a commercial hub is a primary reason why it was chosen as the modern “People’s Capital.” The revival of Amaravati is thus seen as a restoration of Telugu pride and heritage.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The conceptual clarity regarding Amaravati’s historical global status comes from archaeological and numismatic evidence. While the city is ancient, its status as a global trade hub is specifically validated by the discovery of Roman coins in the region, indicating active maritime and overland trade routes during the Satavahana period. This trade linked the Indian subcontinent with the Mediterranean world and Southeast Asian kingdoms.
- Statement a is incorrect because while Ashokan edicts exist elsewhere, the Roman trade connection is a hallmark of the later Satavahana era.
- Statement c is incorrect as “Aramavati” is a later descriptive name (“City of Gardens”) rather than a Vedic reference.
- Statement b refers to the modern potential of the city, not its ancient history. The historical glory of Amaravati as a center of learning (Buddhism) and a commercial hub is a primary reason why it was chosen as the modern “People’s Capital.” The revival of Amaravati is thus seen as a restoration of Telugu pride and heritage.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Smoke Mountain’ or Jabal ad Dukhan is a prominent geographical feature of:
Correct
Solution: C
- Jabal ad Dukhan is the highest point in Bahrain, standing at 134 meters. The name translates to “Mountain of Smoke,” referring to the haze or mist that often gathers around it due to the intense heat and humidity of the Persian Gulf.
- It is located on the main Bahrain Island. This area is also significant because it contains the Dukhan Field, which holds the country’s primary oil and gas reserves. Bahrain’s landscape is mostly a low-lying, arid desert. Despite its small size, it is a crucial player in the region, hosting the S. Navy’s 5th Fleet.
- The geography of Bahrain—as an archipelago—makes it distinct from its neighbors on the mainland. Historically, its freshwater springs allowed the Dilmun civilization to thrive. Today, its proximity to the Strait of Hormuz makes its stability vital for global energy security, as a significant portion of the world’s oil supply passes through these waters.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Jabal ad Dukhan is the highest point in Bahrain, standing at 134 meters. The name translates to “Mountain of Smoke,” referring to the haze or mist that often gathers around it due to the intense heat and humidity of the Persian Gulf.
- It is located on the main Bahrain Island. This area is also significant because it contains the Dukhan Field, which holds the country’s primary oil and gas reserves. Bahrain’s landscape is mostly a low-lying, arid desert. Despite its small size, it is a crucial player in the region, hosting the S. Navy’s 5th Fleet.
- The geography of Bahrain—as an archipelago—makes it distinct from its neighbors on the mainland. Historically, its freshwater springs allowed the Dilmun civilization to thrive. Today, its proximity to the Strait of Hormuz makes its stability vital for global energy security, as a significant portion of the world’s oil supply passes through these waters.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR):
- It is designed and developed entirely through international collaboration under the ‘Atoms for Peace’ initiative.
- The use of liquid sodium as a coolant allows the reactor to operate at higher temperatures, enhancing thermal efficiency.
- Attaining criticality proves that the engineering calculations and fuel arrangement in the reactor core are accurate.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect; the PFBR is a testament to indigenous design and was developed by BHAVINI almost entirely with Indian technology and materials. It is part of India’s self-reliant three-stage nuclear roadmap.
- Statement 2 is correct; liquid sodium has a very high boiling point, which allows the reactor to operate at higher temperatures compared to conventional water-cooled reactors. This result is a higher thermal efficiency, meaning more of the heat produced is converted into electricity.
- Statement 3 is correct; criticality is the ultimate technical validation. It confirms that the complex physics behind the core geometry, the arrangement of the MOX fuel, and the control systems are functioning exactly as intended. This milestone is the final step before the reactor begins regular power generation for the grid. The PFBR marks the beginning of the “Second Stage” of India’s nuclear programme, moving the country closer to utilizing its thorium reserves.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect; the PFBR is a testament to indigenous design and was developed by BHAVINI almost entirely with Indian technology and materials. It is part of India’s self-reliant three-stage nuclear roadmap.
- Statement 2 is correct; liquid sodium has a very high boiling point, which allows the reactor to operate at higher temperatures compared to conventional water-cooled reactors. This result is a higher thermal efficiency, meaning more of the heat produced is converted into electricity.
- Statement 3 is correct; criticality is the ultimate technical validation. It confirms that the complex physics behind the core geometry, the arrangement of the MOX fuel, and the control systems are functioning exactly as intended. This milestone is the final step before the reactor begins regular power generation for the grid. The PFBR marks the beginning of the “Second Stage” of India’s nuclear programme, moving the country closer to utilizing its thorium reserves.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE), which of the following statements are correct?
- The reference period for the inaugural round of the survey is 2024-25.
- It aims to complement the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), which primarily covers the manufacturing sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
- The ASISSE is a critical addition to India’s statistical infrastructure.
- Statement 1 is correct; the NSO launched this first-ever survey for the reference period 2024-25. It targets approximately 21 lakh incorporated enterprises in the services sector.
- Statement 2 is correct; the ASISSE is designed to fill a long-standing gap in economic data. While the ASI tracks the manufacturing sector annually, there was no equivalent annual survey for the formal services sector until now. By providing operational and economic indicators, ASISSE helps in better planning and analysis. It covers diverse fields such as IT, transport, and hospitality.
- The survey uses a secure, web-based portal for digital data collection to ensure speed and accuracy. This shift toward formal data collection reflects the services sector’s massive contribution (over 50%) to the national GDP and its role as a primary engine of employment generation in India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The ASISSE is a critical addition to India’s statistical infrastructure.
- Statement 1 is correct; the NSO launched this first-ever survey for the reference period 2024-25. It targets approximately 21 lakh incorporated enterprises in the services sector.
- Statement 2 is correct; the ASISSE is designed to fill a long-standing gap in economic data. While the ASI tracks the manufacturing sector annually, there was no equivalent annual survey for the formal services sector until now. By providing operational and economic indicators, ASISSE helps in better planning and analysis. It covers diverse fields such as IT, transport, and hospitality.
- The survey uses a secure, web-based portal for digital data collection to ensure speed and accuracy. This shift toward formal data collection reflects the services sector’s massive contribution (over 50%) to the national GDP and its role as a primary engine of employment generation in India.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsIn the context of modern urban planning in India, Amaravati is being developed as a ‘Greenfield’ capital. What does this term primarily imply?
Correct
Solution: B
- A Greenfield project refers to building on land where no prior development or existing infrastructure exists. In the context of Amaravati, it implies that the city is being planned and constructed from the ground up on the banks of the Krishna River. This allows urban planners to design a modern, efficient city layout with integrated transportation, sewage, and utility systems that would be difficult to retrofit in an existing “Brownfield” city.
- While the city aims to be a hub for IT and pharmaceuticals and leverage its proximity to the river (blue economy), the term “Greenfield” specifically denotes the nature of the development site. The 2026 Act provides the legal finality needed for this massive undertaking.
- The location in the Guntur district was chosen for its central position and historical significance as the ancient Satavahana capital. This planned development is intended to transform Amaravati into a modern “People’s Capital” while reviving its ancient glory.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- A Greenfield project refers to building on land where no prior development or existing infrastructure exists. In the context of Amaravati, it implies that the city is being planned and constructed from the ground up on the banks of the Krishna River. This allows urban planners to design a modern, efficient city layout with integrated transportation, sewage, and utility systems that would be difficult to retrofit in an existing “Brownfield” city.
- While the city aims to be a hub for IT and pharmaceuticals and leverage its proximity to the river (blue economy), the term “Greenfield” specifically denotes the nature of the development site. The 2026 Act provides the legal finality needed for this massive undertaking.
- The location in the Guntur district was chosen for its central position and historical significance as the ancient Satavahana capital. This planned development is intended to transform Amaravati into a modern “People’s Capital” while reviving its ancient glory.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve (VDTR):
- It was formed by merging the Nauradehi and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuaries in Madhya Pradesh.
- It is characterized by a “Savannah-like” terrain that resembles the South African veld, making it suitable for cheetahs.
- The Bamner River, which flows through the reserve, is a critical habitat for rare turtle species.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve (VDTR) is a massive protected area of 2,339 sq km.
- Statement 1 is correct: It was officially notified in September 2023 after merging the Nauradehi and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuaries. It spans the districts of Sagar, Damoh, and Narsinghpur.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Mohli Range within the reserve features open grasslands and scrub forests, described as Savannah-like. This topography is very similar to the South African veld, providing the ideal open hunting ground required for the high-speed chases of Cheetahs.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Bamner River intersects the reserve, supporting a rich riverine ecosystem. This includes diverse aquatic life and rare turtle species such as the Tera Prince and Sundari. The reserve is unique as it will be the first site where cheetahs co-exist with significant populations of tigers, leopards, and Indian wolves, making it a vital landscape for large carnivore conservation in India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve (VDTR) is a massive protected area of 2,339 sq km.
- Statement 1 is correct: It was officially notified in September 2023 after merging the Nauradehi and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuaries. It spans the districts of Sagar, Damoh, and Narsinghpur.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Mohli Range within the reserve features open grasslands and scrub forests, described as Savannah-like. This topography is very similar to the South African veld, providing the ideal open hunting ground required for the high-speed chases of Cheetahs.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Bamner River intersects the reserve, supporting a rich riverine ecosystem. This includes diverse aquatic life and rare turtle species such as the Tera Prince and Sundari. The reserve is unique as it will be the first site where cheetahs co-exist with significant populations of tigers, leopards, and Indian wolves, making it a vital landscape for large carnivore conservation in India.
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