Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
In the context of constitutional procedures for the removal of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) in India, consider the following statements:
- A notice for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) must be signed by at least 100 members in the Rajya Sabha and 50 members in the Lok Sabha.
- Once a removal notice is submitted by the required number of MPs, the Rajya Sabha Chairman is constitutionally bound to admit it and form an inquiry committee.
- The removal of the Chief Election Commissioner follows the same procedure as that of the Chief Justice of a High Court, which is distinct from the procedure for a Supreme Court Judge.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is governed by Article 324(5) of the Constitution, which states that the CEC can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. This makes the impeachment procedure under Article 124(4)
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the requirement of 100 members in Rajya Sabha or 50 in Lok Sabha comes from the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which governs the initiation of impeachment motions for judges. While this procedure is followed for the CEC as well (due to “same manner”), the Constitution itself does not explicitly prescribe these numbers specifically for the CEC.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha has discretion to admit or reject the motion. They are not constitutionally bound to accept every motion that meets the numerical threshold. Only after admission is an inquiry committee constituted.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because the removal procedure of the CEC is identical for both Supreme Court and High Court judges, as High Court judges are also removed through the same impeachment mechanism.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is governed by Article 324(5) of the Constitution, which states that the CEC can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. This makes the impeachment procedure under Article 124(4)
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the requirement of 100 members in Rajya Sabha or 50 in Lok Sabha comes from the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which governs the initiation of impeachment motions for judges. While this procedure is followed for the CEC as well (due to “same manner”), the Constitution itself does not explicitly prescribe these numbers specifically for the CEC.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha has discretion to admit or reject the motion. They are not constitutionally bound to accept every motion that meets the numerical threshold. Only after admission is an inquiry committee constituted.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because the removal procedure of the CEC is identical for both Supreme Court and High Court judges, as High Court judges are also removed through the same impeachment mechanism.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
The closure of the Strait of Hormuz is predicted to cause a “stagflationary shock” to the Indian economy. Which of the following best describes the characteristics of stagflation?
Correct
Solution: B
- Stagflation is an economic condition characterized by the “stagnation” of economic growth and high unemployment, occurring simultaneously with “inflation” (rising prices). In the context of the 2026 conflict, crude oil prices exceeding $100 per barrel act as a supply-side shock. This increases input costs for various sectors, leading to price hikes (inflation) while simultaneously dampening corporate earnings and consumer demand (stagnating growth).
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Stagflation is an economic condition characterized by the “stagnation” of economic growth and high unemployment, occurring simultaneously with “inflation” (rising prices). In the context of the 2026 conflict, crude oil prices exceeding $100 per barrel act as a supply-side shock. This increases input costs for various sectors, leading to price hikes (inflation) while simultaneously dampening corporate earnings and consumer demand (stagnating growth).
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) amendments 2026:
- The amendments prioritize the “Resolution” of distressed assets over “Liquidation” to preserve the enterprise as a going concern.
- The legislation mandates that the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) must complete all proceedings within 90 days of admission, without exception.
- The primary legislative intent is to maximize the value of assets for stakeholders through a time-bound and creditor-led process.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct; the IBC was designed to move away from the “liquidation-first” approach of the previous regime, focusing instead on rescuing companies through resolution plans.
- Statement 3 is correct; in her March 2026 speech, Finance Minister explicitly stated that the amendments will help “maximize value for stakeholders”. This is a central tenet of the IBC—ensuring that assets are not sold at “scrap” value but are instead transferred to more efficient managers.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; while the IBC encourages time-bound resolutions (initially 180 days, extendable to 330), a 90-day mandatory limit “without exception” is factually wrong and practically impossible given the legal complexities involved.
- The 2026 amendments focus on making the resolution professional’s role more effective and streamlining the creditor-led process amidst global economic volatility.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct; the IBC was designed to move away from the “liquidation-first” approach of the previous regime, focusing instead on rescuing companies through resolution plans.
- Statement 3 is correct; in her March 2026 speech, Finance Minister explicitly stated that the amendments will help “maximize value for stakeholders”. This is a central tenet of the IBC—ensuring that assets are not sold at “scrap” value but are instead transferred to more efficient managers.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; while the IBC encourages time-bound resolutions (initially 180 days, extendable to 330), a 90-day mandatory limit “without exception” is factually wrong and practically impossible given the legal complexities involved.
- The 2026 amendments focus on making the resolution professional’s role more effective and streamlining the creditor-led process amidst global economic volatility.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The “National One Health Mission (NOHM)” is a critical framework for pandemic preparedness.
Statement II: The NOHM seeks to integrate human health, animal health, and environmental health data to manage zoonotic disease outbreaks.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- The One Health approach is an interdisciplinary strategy for modern biosecurity.
- Statement I is correct; the NOHM gained prominence in late 2025 following reports on rising global nuclear risks and the 50th anniversary of the Biological Weapons Convention.
- Statement II is correct; it is the fundamental mechanism of the “One Health” concept, recognizing that the health of people is inextricably linked to the health of animals and the environment.
- Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I because the strategic “pandemic preparedness” (Statement I) is achieved specifically through the “integration of cross-sectoral health data” (Statement II) to identify “spillover” events before they become epidemics.
- The origin of the mission lies in the lessons learned from COVID-19 and the persistent threat of Avian Influenza and Tuberculosis.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The One Health approach is an interdisciplinary strategy for modern biosecurity.
- Statement I is correct; the NOHM gained prominence in late 2025 following reports on rising global nuclear risks and the 50th anniversary of the Biological Weapons Convention.
- Statement II is correct; it is the fundamental mechanism of the “One Health” concept, recognizing that the health of people is inextricably linked to the health of animals and the environment.
- Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I because the strategic “pandemic preparedness” (Statement I) is achieved specifically through the “integration of cross-sectoral health data” (Statement II) to identify “spillover” events before they become epidemics.
- The origin of the mission lies in the lessons learned from COVID-19 and the persistent threat of Avian Influenza and Tuberculosis.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding “Critical Minerals” and India’s 2035 strategy:
- Rare earths, gallium, and cobalt are identified as critical minerals for India’s energy transition.
- The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) focuses on recovering minerals from “secondary resources” like coal fly ash and steel slag.
- India has signed a Technology and Innovation Partnership with Australia and Canada to enhance its mineral processing capacity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Mineral security is the “new energy security” in a decarbonizing world.
- Statement 1 is correct; these minerals are essential for high-performance magnets (in EV motors), semiconductors, and lithium-ion battery cathodes.
- Statement 2 is correct; the NCMM aims to create “specialized processing parks” to extract rare earths from industrial by-products like red mud (from aluminum production) and fly ash (from coal plants).
- Statement 3 is correct; India is actively engaging in “mineral diplomacy” to move from raw ore acquisition to deep co-investment in processing technologies with partners like Australia and Canada. The mechanism involves de-risking private investment through price-guarantee models and national stockpiles.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Mineral security is the “new energy security” in a decarbonizing world.
- Statement 1 is correct; these minerals are essential for high-performance magnets (in EV motors), semiconductors, and lithium-ion battery cathodes.
- Statement 2 is correct; the NCMM aims to create “specialized processing parks” to extract rare earths from industrial by-products like red mud (from aluminum production) and fly ash (from coal plants).
- Statement 3 is correct; India is actively engaging in “mineral diplomacy” to move from raw ore acquisition to deep co-investment in processing technologies with partners like Australia and Canada. The mechanism involves de-risking private investment through price-guarantee models and national stockpiles.
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