DAY – 30 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES & ORGANISATIONS

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

1. Censure Motion — Does NOT require 50 members
   A censure motion is moved against the Council of Ministers for specific policies or actions. Unlike a no-confidence motion, it must state reasons/charges explicitly.

• There is no constitutional or procedural requirement of support from 50 members.
• Its admission depends on the Speaker’s discretion and political context.

1. No-Confidence Motion — Requires 50 members
   A no-confidence motion tests whether the Council of Ministers enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.

• As per Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure, such a motion must be supported by at least 50 members to be admitted.
• If admitted and passed, it leads to the resignation of the Council of Ministers (Article 75(3): collective responsibility).

III. Call Attention Motion — Does NOT require 50 members
A call attention motion is a device to bring urgent public matters to the notice of a Minister.

• It is not a formal motion involving voting but a procedural device.
• No requirement of 50-member support; admission depends on the Speaker’s approval.

1. Adjournment Motion — Requires 50 members
   An adjournment motion seeks to interrupt normal business to discuss a definite, urgent matter of public importance, often involving government accountability.

• It is an extraordinary device with serious implications.
• Requires the support of at least 50 members for admission in the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker has the power under the Rules of Procedure (notably Rule 374 and 374A) to suspend a member for disorderly conduct. In the Rajya Sabha, the Chairman (Vice-President) generally “names” a member, after which the House adopts a motion to suspend the member. Thus, the procedural distinction stated is broadly correct.

Statement II is incorrect. Suspension of members in Parliament is ordinarily limited to the remainder of the session. Extending suspension beyond the session is not part of the established parliamentary framework and would raise constitutional concerns regarding representation.

Statement III is correct. In Ashish Shelar v. Maharashtra Legislative Assembly (2022), the Supreme Court held that suspension of MLAs beyond the remainder of the session is unconstitutional, as it violates democratic representation and the rights of constituents.

Statement IV is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not explicitly lay down the procedure or maximum duration for suspension of MPs. These aspects are governed by the Rules of Procedure of each House and parliamentary conventions, not constitutional provisions.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 institutionalized urban local governance by inserting Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG) into the Constitution and mandating certain planning and participatory bodies.

Statement I is correct. The District Planning Committee (DPC) is provided under Article 243ZD. It consolidates plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities and prepares a draft development plan for the district.

Statement II is correct. The Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC) is mandated under Article 243ZE for metropolitan areas (population ≥ 10 lakh). It prepares a development plan for the metropolitan region.

Statement III is correct. The Ward Committee is provided under Article 243S. It is constituted in municipalities with a population of 3 lakh or more to ensure local-level participation in governance.

Statement IV is incorrect. The Joint Consultative Committee is not a constitutional body under the 74th Amendment. It is generally associated with administrative or industrial relations contexts, not urban local governance under the Constitution.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The concept of a Curative Petition is a judicial innovation devised by the Supreme Court of India to prevent miscarriage of justice even after the dismissal of a review petition.

Statement I is correct. The curative petition was evolved by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002), where the Court recognized that in rare and exceptional cases, its final judgments may still require reconsideration to cure gross injustice.

Statement II is correct. A curative petition is maintainable only after the dismissal of a review petition under Article 137. It is considered the last judicial remedy available in the Indian legal system.

Statement III is correct. The Supreme Court laid down specific procedural safeguards, including that the petition must be accompanied by a certification from a Senior Advocate affirming that the case meets the strict grounds such as violation of principles of natural justice or bias. This requirement ensures that only exceptional cases are entertained.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Doctrine of Constitutional Silences refers to a principle in constitutional interpretation where courts recognize and give meaning to areas where the Constitution is deliberately or necessarily silent, and interpret such silences in a manner that preserves constitutional values such as democracy, rule of law, and institutional balance.

It implies that the Constitution is not an exhaustive code; therefore, judicial interpretation can fill gaps or silences in a way that aligns with its basic structure and underlying philosophy.

Option (a) is incorrect because it describes the Pocket Veto, a specific executive power of the President, not a doctrine of interpretation.

Option (c) is incorrect as there is no such constitutional doctrine related to the Speaker remaining silent during a tie; in fact, the Speaker exercises a casting vote under Article 100.

Option (d) is incorrect because it refers to constitutional immunity of the Governor under Article 361, which is unrelated to interpretative doctrines.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:
Under Article 156 of the Constitution of India, the Governor holds office “during the pleasure of the President.” This implies absence of fixed security of tenure, and the Governor can be removed before the completion of the five-year term without assigning reasons.

Statement II is correct:
In B.P. Singhal v. Union of India (2010), the Supreme Court of India held that although the Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President, this power cannot be exercised arbitrarily, capriciously, or unreasonably. The Court clarified that removal must be based on valid reasons, even if those reasons need not be publicly disclosed. Thus, it imposes a constitutional limitation on the “pleasure doctrine.”

Statement III is incorrect:
The Constitution does not prescribe any specific grounds such as “misbehavior” or “incapacity” for the removal of a Governor. Such explicit grounds exist for removal of judges (Articles 124(4), 217), but not for Governors.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA) is a statutory body established under the ICWA Act, 2001, and is recognized as an institution of national importance. Its primary role is to function as a think tank and research institution in the domain of foreign policy and international relations, rather than as an executive or decision-making authority.

Statement I is correct because ICWA, being a statutory institution, is mandated to undertake research and generate informed inputs on foreign policy and international affairs. While it may contribute to policy discourse and provide intellectual inputs, these are advisory and non-binding in nature, and it does not exercise formal policy-making powers.

Statement II is also correct as one of the core objectives of ICWA is to promote the study of Indian and international affairs. It achieves this through organizing seminars, conferences, lectures, and by publishing journals such as India Quarterly. This academic engagement helps in fostering informed debate and scholarship in international relations.

Statement III is incorrect because the formulation and execution of bilateral trade treaties is an exclusive function of the executive branch of the government, particularly the Ministry of External Affairs and the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. ICWA has no role in treaty negotiation or implementation, as it is not an executive body.

Statement IV is correct since ICWA contributes to creating a reservoir of knowledge for public and scholarly use. Through its research outputs, publications, and archival resources, it enhances public understanding of global affairs and supports policy-oriented research.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:
Under the UN Charter, the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security rests with the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) (Article 24). However, when the Security Council fails to act due to lack of unanimity among its permanent members (veto deadlock), the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) is not entirely precluded from addressing such situations. In practice, the UNGA has assumed a supplementary role in deliberating issues of international peace and security when the UNSC is unable to discharge its responsibilities effectively.

Statement II is correct:
The “Uniting for Peace” Resolution (UNGA Resolution 377A(V), 1950) was adopted during the Korean War to address precisely such deadlocks. It provides that in cases where the Security Council fails to act due to veto by a permanent member, the General Assembly can convene an Emergency Special Session and recommend collective measures, which may include the use of armed force, to maintain or restore international peace and security. However, these recommendations are non-binding in nature.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Pair I: (Correct)
The Council of Europe, established in 1949, is a distinct body from the European Union and focuses on human rights, democracy, and rule of law. Its headquarters is located in Strasbourg, France, where the European Court of Human Rights (ECHR) is also

Pair II: (Correct)
The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It regulates mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond national jurisdiction. Its headquarters is in Kingston, Jamaica, making this pair correct.

Pair III: (Incorrect)
The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO), which oversees the implementation of the nuclear test-ban regime, is headquartered in Vienna, Austria, not Geneva. Geneva hosts several UN bodies.

Pair IV: (Correct)
The Arctic Council is an intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation among Arctic states on environmental protection and sustainable development. Its permanent secretariat is located in Tromsø, Norway, established in 2013. Hence, this pair is correct.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is a UN agency established in 1950 with the mandate to protect refugees, internally displaced persons (IDPs), stateless individuals, and other forcibly displaced populations, and to assist in durable solutions such as repatriation, resettlement, or integration.

Statement II is incorrect. UNHCR is not the only authority that can grant refugee status globally, nor does it override national sovereignty. While UNHCR may conduct Refugee Status Determination (RSD) in countries lacking national asylum systems, states retain primary authority over granting refugee status under their domestic laws.

Statement III is correct. The Nansen Refugee Award is the most prestigious honor conferred by UNHCR, recognizing individuals or organizations that have rendered outstanding service to the cause of displaced persons.

Statement IV is correct. India is not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol, yet it co-operates with UNHCR, particularly in handling refugees from countries like Afghanistan and Myanmar (Rohingya), allowing UNHCR to operate in a limited capacity.

Answer: b) 181

Solution:
A majority in a 5-member committee means at least 3 women.

Case 1: 3 women and 2 men
Ways to choose 3 women from 5 = 10
Ways to choose 2 men from 6 = 15
Total = 10 × 15 = 150

Case 2: 4 women and 1 man
Ways to choose 4 women from 5 = 5
Ways to choose 1 man from 6 = 6
Total = 5 × 6 = 30

Case 3: 5 women
Ways = 1

Total ways = 150 + 30 + 1 = 181

Answer: b) 60

Solution:
We are forming 3-digit numbers between 400 and 999.

Hundreds digit must be 4, 5, or 6 → 3 choices

After choosing the hundreds digit, 5 digits remain.
Tens place → 5 choices
Units place → 4 choices

Total numbers = 3 × 5 × 4 = 60

Answer: b) 50,400

Solution:
Word: CORPORATION

Vowels: O, O, O, A, I → 5 vowels
Consonants: C, P, R, R, T, N → 6 consonants

Step 1: Treat all vowels as one block
Now total units = 6 consonants + 1 vowel block = 7 units

Among consonants, R repeats twice
Arrangements of 7 units = 7! divided by 2! = 2520

Step 2: Arrange vowels inside the block
5 vowels where O repeats 3 times
Arrangements = 5! divided by 3! = 20

Total arrangements = 2520 × 20 = 50,400

Answer: b) 12

Solution:

Step 1: Total circular arrangements of 5 people
= (5 − 1)! = 4! = 24

Step 2: Arrangements where P and Q are together
Treat P and Q as one unit → total units = 4

Circular arrangements = (4 − 1)! = 3! = 6

P and Q can swap places → 2 ways
Total = 6 × 2 = 12

Step 3: Required arrangements
= Total − Together
= 24 − 12 = 12

Answer: b)

Solution:
The passage focuses on how the “attention economy” drives platforms to prioritize emotionally charged content. This leads to echo chambers and fragmentation of shared reality.

Option (a) is too extreme because the passage does not say transparency has completely failed.
Option (c) is incorrect because the passage criticizes sensationalism, not justifies it.
Option (d) is incorrect because the passage blames algorithmic systems, not individuals alone.

Option (b) correctly captures the core idea:
The economic model (attention economy) is weakening social cohesion and shared understanding.