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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cabinet Committees:
- The decisions taken by a Cabinet Committee are final and binding unless the full Cabinet chooses to review them.
- Cabinet Committees may include Ministers who are not members of the Cabinet, yet they continue to be referred to as “Cabinet Committees.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional bodies (meaning they are not mentioned in the Constitution) that function as organizational devices to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet. They facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination.
- Statement 1 is correct: These committees are powerful bodies that act as a “Cabinet within the Cabinet.” While the full Cabinet is the supreme decision-making body, the decisions made by a Cabinet Committee are final. The Cabinet rarely overturns these decisions, although it reserves the right to review or modify any decision taken by its committees.
- Statement 2 is correct: Although they are called “Cabinet Committees,” their membership is not strictly limited to Cabinet Ministers. They usually include Cabinet Ministers as core members, but Ministers of State (with independent charge or otherwise) can also be members. Despite the inclusion of non-cabinet members, the nomenclature “Cabinet Committee” is retained because they are created by and report to the Cabinet.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional bodies (meaning they are not mentioned in the Constitution) that function as organizational devices to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet. They facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination.
- Statement 1 is correct: These committees are powerful bodies that act as a “Cabinet within the Cabinet.” While the full Cabinet is the supreme decision-making body, the decisions made by a Cabinet Committee are final. The Cabinet rarely overturns these decisions, although it reserves the right to review or modify any decision taken by its committees.
- Statement 2 is correct: Although they are called “Cabinet Committees,” their membership is not strictly limited to Cabinet Ministers. They usually include Cabinet Ministers as core members, but Ministers of State (with independent charge or otherwise) can also be members. Despite the inclusion of non-cabinet members, the nomenclature “Cabinet Committee” is retained because they are created by and report to the Cabinet.
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The beneficiary should be working with bare hands and tools.
- The beneficiary should be engaged in one of the specified family-based traditional trades.
- The minimum age of the beneficiary should be 18 years at the time of registration.
- The benefit of the scheme shall be restricted to one member of the family only.
How many of the above statements are eligibility criteria under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation
The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched in September 2023, is a Central Sector Scheme designed to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
The PM Vishwakarma Yojana lays down specific eligibility criteria to ensure the benefits reach the intended artisans and craftsmen. The scheme focuses on supporting individuals engaged in traditional skills and manual trades which has been passed down through generations.
Eligibility conditions to be a beneficiary under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme
- The beneficiary should be working with bare hands and tools
- Engaged in one of the mentioned 18 family-based traditional trades
- Involved in the unorganized sector or self-employment basis
- Minimum age should be 18 years on the date of registration
- No loans should have been availed under a similar credit-based scheme of the Central/State government for self-employment/business development in the past 5 years
- The benefit of the scheme shall be restricted to one member of the family only. Under the scheme, the family is defined as Husband, Wife, and unmarried children.
- The person/family member should not be employed in government service
To register for the scheme, Common Service Centre (CSC) agents register artisans and craftspersons on the portal, for which the government has set down a process so that every Vishwakarma is registered via Aadhaar authentication using biometrics.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation
The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched in September 2023, is a Central Sector Scheme designed to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
The PM Vishwakarma Yojana lays down specific eligibility criteria to ensure the benefits reach the intended artisans and craftsmen. The scheme focuses on supporting individuals engaged in traditional skills and manual trades which has been passed down through generations.
Eligibility conditions to be a beneficiary under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme
- The beneficiary should be working with bare hands and tools
- Engaged in one of the mentioned 18 family-based traditional trades
- Involved in the unorganized sector or self-employment basis
- Minimum age should be 18 years on the date of registration
- No loans should have been availed under a similar credit-based scheme of the Central/State government for self-employment/business development in the past 5 years
- The benefit of the scheme shall be restricted to one member of the family only. Under the scheme, the family is defined as Husband, Wife, and unmarried children.
- The person/family member should not be employed in government service
To register for the scheme, Common Service Centre (CSC) agents register artisans and craftspersons on the portal, for which the government has set down a process so that every Vishwakarma is registered via Aadhaar authentication using biometrics.
-
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the composition of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):
- Each Commission consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other members.
- The conditions of service and tenure of office of the members are determined by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) are constitutional bodies established to safeguard the interests of these communities. Initially, a single combined commission existed, but they were bifurcated into two separate entities by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
- Statement 1 is correct: According to the provisions of Article 338 (for NCSC) and Article 338A (for NCST), each Commission consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other members. This five-member structure is identical for both commissions.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution specifies that the President of India shall, by rule, determine the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other members. Currently, under these rules, they hold office for a term of three years, and the Chairperson is given the rank of a Union Cabinet Minister.
The President lays these reports before each House of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations. If any recommendation relates to a State Government, a copy is forwarded to the Governor of that State.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) are constitutional bodies established to safeguard the interests of these communities. Initially, a single combined commission existed, but they were bifurcated into two separate entities by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
- Statement 1 is correct: According to the provisions of Article 338 (for NCSC) and Article 338A (for NCST), each Commission consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other members. This five-member structure is identical for both commissions.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution specifies that the President of India shall, by rule, determine the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other members. Currently, under these rules, they hold office for a term of three years, and the Chairperson is given the rank of a Union Cabinet Minister.
The President lays these reports before each House of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations. If any recommendation relates to a State Government, a copy is forwarded to the Governor of that State.
-
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the PM-DevINE (Development Initiative for North Eastern Region) Scheme:
- It is a 100% Central Sector Scheme implemented through the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region.
- It focuses on funding infrastructure and social development projects based on the felt needs of the States.
- It serves as a substitute for existing Central and State schemes in the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
The PM-DevINE scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2022–23 and subsequently approved by the Cabinet to address the specific developmental gaps in the North Eastern Region (NER).
- Statement 1 is correct: PM-DevINE is a 100% Central Sector Scheme, which means it is entirely funded by the Central Government. It is implemented by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER), either through the North Eastern Council (NEC) or Central Ministries/agencies.
- Statement 2 is correct: The scheme’s primary objectives include funding infrastructure projects (in the spirit of PM GatiShakti) and supporting social development projects based on the “felt needs” of the North Eastern states. This ensures that the projects are not top-down but are aligned with the actual requirements of the local population.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: PM-DevINE is explicitly designed to be additive in nature. It is not a substitute for existing Central or State schemes. Instead, it aims to fund projects that are not covered by any other scheme, thereby plugging the gaps in the existing developmental framework of the region.
Beyond infrastructure, the scheme also places a strong emphasis on creating livelihood activities for youth and women, helping to integrate the region’s human capital into the mainstream economy.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
The PM-DevINE scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2022–23 and subsequently approved by the Cabinet to address the specific developmental gaps in the North Eastern Region (NER).
- Statement 1 is correct: PM-DevINE is a 100% Central Sector Scheme, which means it is entirely funded by the Central Government. It is implemented by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER), either through the North Eastern Council (NEC) or Central Ministries/agencies.
- Statement 2 is correct: The scheme’s primary objectives include funding infrastructure projects (in the spirit of PM GatiShakti) and supporting social development projects based on the “felt needs” of the North Eastern states. This ensures that the projects are not top-down but are aligned with the actual requirements of the local population.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: PM-DevINE is explicitly designed to be additive in nature. It is not a substitute for existing Central or State schemes. Instead, it aims to fund projects that are not covered by any other scheme, thereby plugging the gaps in the existing developmental framework of the region.
Beyond infrastructure, the scheme also places a strong emphasis on creating livelihood activities for youth and women, helping to integrate the region’s human capital into the mainstream economy.
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of schemes and their respective ministries:
1. Scheme Ministry 2. PM-MITRA Ministry of Textiles 3. MISHTI Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change 4. Sagar-Manthan Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways 5. SHREYAS Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: PM-MITRA (Pragma Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) scheme is managed by the Ministry of Textiles. It aims to set up 7 mega textile parks across India to create a world-class industrial infrastructure, reducing logistics costs and boosting the “5F” vision (Farm to Fiber to Factory to Fashion to Foreign). The seven parks are being set up in Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes) is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Launched in the 2023–24 Budget, it focuses on mangrove plantation along India’s coastline and on salt pan lands, leveraging convergence between MGNREGS and the CAMPA Fund.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sagar-Manthan is the Real-time Performance Monitoring Dashboard of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It is a digital platform designed to monitor the progress of various projects and KPIs of ports, improving efficiency and transparency in the maritime sector.
- Pair 4 is correctly matched: SHREYAS (Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme) is an umbrella scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It provides financial assistance to students belonging to Scheduled Castes (SC) and Other Backward Classes (OBC) for pursuing higher education (including coaching for competitive exams and overseas studies).
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: PM-MITRA (Pragma Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) scheme is managed by the Ministry of Textiles. It aims to set up 7 mega textile parks across India to create a world-class industrial infrastructure, reducing logistics costs and boosting the “5F” vision (Farm to Fiber to Factory to Fashion to Foreign). The seven parks are being set up in Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes) is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Launched in the 2023–24 Budget, it focuses on mangrove plantation along India’s coastline and on salt pan lands, leveraging convergence between MGNREGS and the CAMPA Fund.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sagar-Manthan is the Real-time Performance Monitoring Dashboard of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It is a digital platform designed to monitor the progress of various projects and KPIs of ports, improving efficiency and transparency in the maritime sector.
- Pair 4 is correctly matched: SHREYAS (Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme) is an umbrella scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It provides financial assistance to students belonging to Scheduled Castes (SC) and Other Backward Classes (OBC) for pursuing higher education (including coaching for competitive exams and overseas studies).
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):
- It approves the National Disaster Management Plan.
- It can recommend the deployment of armed forces for disaster relief operations.
- It lays down broad policies and guidelines for the functioning of the National Institute of Disaster Management.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
- Statement 1 is correct: According to Section 6 of the DM Act, 2005, one of the primary powers and functions of the NDMA is to approve the National Disaster Management Plan. While the National Executive Committee (NEC) prepares the plan, the final approval rests with the NDMA. It also approves plans prepared by various Central Ministries and Departments.
- Statement 2 is correct: While the primary responsibility for disaster management rests with the State Governments, the NDMA can recommend the deployment of armed forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force) to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR). The NDMA works in coordination with the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Ministry of Defence to facilitate the rapid mobilization of military assets for rescue, logistics, and medical support.
- Statement 3 is correct: The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM), which is the premier institute for training and capacity building in India, is mandated by the Act to function within the broad policies and guidelines laid down by the NDMA. The NDMA provides the strategic direction and framework under which NIDM develops training modules and conducts research.
Composition: The NDMA consists of a Chairperson (Prime Minister) and other members, not exceeding nine, one of whom is designated as the Vice-Chairperson.
- National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF): The NDMA also recommends the provision of funds for mitigation and oversees the application of funds for preparedness and response.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
- Statement 1 is correct: According to Section 6 of the DM Act, 2005, one of the primary powers and functions of the NDMA is to approve the National Disaster Management Plan. While the National Executive Committee (NEC) prepares the plan, the final approval rests with the NDMA. It also approves plans prepared by various Central Ministries and Departments.
- Statement 2 is correct: While the primary responsibility for disaster management rests with the State Governments, the NDMA can recommend the deployment of armed forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force) to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR). The NDMA works in coordination with the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Ministry of Defence to facilitate the rapid mobilization of military assets for rescue, logistics, and medical support.
- Statement 3 is correct: The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM), which is the premier institute for training and capacity building in India, is mandated by the Act to function within the broad policies and guidelines laid down by the NDMA. The NDMA provides the strategic direction and framework under which NIDM develops training modules and conducts research.
Composition: The NDMA consists of a Chairperson (Prime Minister) and other members, not exceeding nine, one of whom is designated as the Vice-Chairperson.
- National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF): The NDMA also recommends the provision of funds for mitigation and oversees the application of funds for preparedness and response.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), who among the following is responsible for the appointment of its chairperson and other members?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a statutory body established by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Its primary objective is to create and nurture conditions for the growth of telecommunications in India and to provide a fair and transparent policy environment.
- Appointing Authority: According to Section 3 of the TRAI Act, the Central Government is responsible for appointing the Chairperson and other members of the Authority.
- Composition: The Authority consists of a Chairperson, not more than two whole-time members, and not more than two part-time members.
- Selection Process: Unlike some other statutory bodies (like the NHRC or the Lokpal) which utilize a high-level multi-member selection committee involving the Judiciary or the Opposition, the TRAI appointments are made directly by the Central Government (typically through the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet) based on the qualifications specified in the Act.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a statutory body established by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Its primary objective is to create and nurture conditions for the growth of telecommunications in India and to provide a fair and transparent policy environment.
- Appointing Authority: According to Section 3 of the TRAI Act, the Central Government is responsible for appointing the Chairperson and other members of the Authority.
- Composition: The Authority consists of a Chairperson, not more than two whole-time members, and not more than two part-time members.
- Selection Process: Unlike some other statutory bodies (like the NHRC or the Lokpal) which utilize a high-level multi-member selection committee involving the Judiciary or the Opposition, the TRAI appointments are made directly by the Central Government (typically through the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet) based on the qualifications specified in the Act.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the AMRIT (Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment) Pharmacy initiative:
- AMRIT pharmacies are operated by a private consortium of pharmaceutical companies under the PPP model.
- The initiative offers life-saving medicines and implants at discounts ranging from 50% to 90%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The AMRIT (Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment) Pharmacy initiative was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2015 to reduce the out-of-pocket expenditure of patients, particularly for chronic and life-threatening conditions.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: AMRIT pharmacies are implemented and managed by HLL Lifecare Limited, which is a Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprise (PSU) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. While they are often located within government hospitals (both Central and State), they function as a government-led retail network rather than a private PPP consortium.
- Statement 2 is correct: The primary value of the AMRIT initiative is its deep pricing discounts. It provides essential and life-saving medicines (especially for cancer and cardiovascular diseases), surgical implants, and other consumables at highly subsidized rates. The discounts generally range from 50% to 90% of the Maximum Retail Price (MRP), helping patients save significantly on treatments that would otherwise be prohibitively expensive.
Jan Aushadhi focuses primarily on generic medicines, whereas AMRIT provides both branded and generic life-saving medicines, as well as high-cost implants (like stents and knee implants) which are not typically the focus of Jan Aushadhi Kendras.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The AMRIT (Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment) Pharmacy initiative was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2015 to reduce the out-of-pocket expenditure of patients, particularly for chronic and life-threatening conditions.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: AMRIT pharmacies are implemented and managed by HLL Lifecare Limited, which is a Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprise (PSU) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. While they are often located within government hospitals (both Central and State), they function as a government-led retail network rather than a private PPP consortium.
- Statement 2 is correct: The primary value of the AMRIT initiative is its deep pricing discounts. It provides essential and life-saving medicines (especially for cancer and cardiovascular diseases), surgical implants, and other consumables at highly subsidized rates. The discounts generally range from 50% to 90% of the Maximum Retail Price (MRP), helping patients save significantly on treatments that would otherwise be prohibitively expensive.
Jan Aushadhi focuses primarily on generic medicines, whereas AMRIT provides both branded and generic life-saving medicines, as well as high-cost implants (like stents and knee implants) which are not typically the focus of Jan Aushadhi Kendras.
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Advance Authorisation Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It allows duty-free import of inputs used in manufacturing goods meant only for domestic consumption.
- The scheme is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
- Inputs under the scheme must be physically incorporated into the export product or consumed in the production process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect. The Advance Authorisation Scheme is designed specifically for exports, not for domestic consumption. It allows duty-free import of inputs that are used in the manufacture of export products. Goods produced using these duty-free inputs must be exported to avail of the exemption; domestic sale would violate the terms unless special permission is obtained with payment of applicable duties.
Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), functioning under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is an important component of India’s Foreign Trade Policy (FTP), aimed at enhancing the global competitiveness of Indian exporters.
Statement 3 is correct. As per the scheme’s guidelines, the inputs imported must be physically incorporated in the final export product or consumed during the production process, even if not physically present in the final goods.
Thus, statements 2 and 3 only are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect. The Advance Authorisation Scheme is designed specifically for exports, not for domestic consumption. It allows duty-free import of inputs that are used in the manufacture of export products. Goods produced using these duty-free inputs must be exported to avail of the exemption; domestic sale would violate the terms unless special permission is obtained with payment of applicable duties.
Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), functioning under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is an important component of India’s Foreign Trade Policy (FTP), aimed at enhancing the global competitiveness of Indian exporters.
Statement 3 is correct. As per the scheme’s guidelines, the inputs imported must be physically incorporated in the final export product or consumed during the production process, even if not physically present in the final goods.
Thus, statements 2 and 3 only are correct.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of schemes, their nodal ministries, and their objectives:
S. No. Scheme Nodal Ministry Objective 1 Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Ministry of Women and Child Development To prevent gender-biased sex-selective elimination 2 Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana Ministry of Finance Small deposit scheme for the education/marriage of girl child 3 Mission Vatsalya Ministry of Women and Child Development Child protection and welfare services 4 Mission Shakti Ministry of Home Affairs Integrated women empowerment and safety programme In how many of the above rows are the given information correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) has recently restructured its various schemes into three major umbrellas: Mission Shakti (for women), Mission Vatsalya (for child welfare), and Mission Poshan 2.0 (for nutrition).
- Row 1 is correctly matched: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) is a tri-ministerial effort, but the Ministry of Women and Child Development acts as the nodal ministry. Its primary objective is to address the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and prevent gender-biased sex-selective elimination while ensuring the education and participation of the girl child.
- Row 2 is correctly matched: Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a small deposit scheme launched as part of the BBBP campaign. While it is promoted by the MWCD, it is officially a scheme of the Ministry of Finance (implemented through Post Offices and Banks). It provides a high-interest savings avenue specifically for the education and marriage expenses of a girl child.
- Row 3 is correctly matched: Mission Vatsalya is the revamped version of the Child Protection Services scheme. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development that focuses on child protection and welfare services, including support for children in difficult circumstances, foster care, and adoption.
- Row 4 is incorrectly matched: While the objective mentioned (Integrated women empowerment and safety) is correct, the nodal ministry is not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Mission Shakti is an integrated flagship scheme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It consists of two sub-schemes: ‘Sambal’ (for safety and security) and ‘Samarthya’ (for empowerment).
Most of these missions (Shakti, Vatsalya, and Poshan) are Centrally Sponsored Schemes, usually funded in a 60:40 ratio between the Centre and States (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan States).
PM Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): Now a part of the ‘Samarthya’ sub-scheme under Mission Shakti, it provides maternity benefits of ₹5,000 in two installments for the first child and ₹6,000 for a second child (if the second child is a girl).
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) has recently restructured its various schemes into three major umbrellas: Mission Shakti (for women), Mission Vatsalya (for child welfare), and Mission Poshan 2.0 (for nutrition).
- Row 1 is correctly matched: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) is a tri-ministerial effort, but the Ministry of Women and Child Development acts as the nodal ministry. Its primary objective is to address the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and prevent gender-biased sex-selective elimination while ensuring the education and participation of the girl child.
- Row 2 is correctly matched: Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a small deposit scheme launched as part of the BBBP campaign. While it is promoted by the MWCD, it is officially a scheme of the Ministry of Finance (implemented through Post Offices and Banks). It provides a high-interest savings avenue specifically for the education and marriage expenses of a girl child.
- Row 3 is correctly matched: Mission Vatsalya is the revamped version of the Child Protection Services scheme. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development that focuses on child protection and welfare services, including support for children in difficult circumstances, foster care, and adoption.
- Row 4 is incorrectly matched: While the objective mentioned (Integrated women empowerment and safety) is correct, the nodal ministry is not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Mission Shakti is an integrated flagship scheme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It consists of two sub-schemes: ‘Sambal’ (for safety and security) and ‘Samarthya’ (for empowerment).
Most of these missions (Shakti, Vatsalya, and Poshan) are Centrally Sponsored Schemes, usually funded in a 60:40 ratio between the Centre and States (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan States).
PM Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): Now a part of the ‘Samarthya’ sub-scheme under Mission Shakti, it provides maternity benefits of ₹5,000 in two installments for the first child and ₹6,000 for a second child (if the second child is a girl).
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsThe LCM of two numbers is 12 times their HCF. The sum of the HCF and LCM is 403. If one of the numbers is 93, what is the other number?
Correct
Answer: a) 124
Solution:
Let HCF = H and LCM = L.
Given L = 12H and L + H = 403.So, 13H = 403 → H = 31
Then L = 12 × 31 = 372Using the relation:
Product of numbers = HCF × LCM93 × x = 31 × 372
x = (31 × 372) ÷ 93Since 93 = 31 × 3,
x = 372 ÷ 3 = 124Incorrect
Answer: a) 124
Solution:
Let HCF = H and LCM = L.
Given L = 12H and L + H = 403.So, 13H = 403 → H = 31
Then L = 12 × 31 = 372Using the relation:
Product of numbers = HCF × LCM93 × x = 31 × 372
x = (31 × 372) ÷ 93Since 93 = 31 × 3,
x = 372 ÷ 3 = 124 -
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsFive bells begin to toll together and toll at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9, and 12 seconds. How many times will they toll together in one hour, excluding the start?
Correct
Answer: a) 7
Solution:
LCM of 6, 7, 8, 9, and 12 = 504 secondsTotal time = 3600 seconds
Number of complete coincidences = 3600 ÷ 504 = 7 (only full intervals counted)
Incorrect
Answer: a) 7
Solution:
LCM of 6, 7, 8, 9, and 12 = 504 secondsTotal time = 3600 seconds
Number of complete coincidences = 3600 ÷ 504 = 7 (only full intervals counted)
-
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsLet n be the greatest number that divides 1305, 4665, and 6905 leaving the same remainder. What is the sum of the digits of n?
Correct
Answer: a) 4
Solution:
Required number = HCF of differences4665 − 1305 = 3360
6905 − 4665 = 2240
6905 − 1305 = 5600HCF of (3360, 2240, 5600) = 1120
Sum of digits = 1 + 1 + 2 + 0 = 4
Incorrect
Answer: a) 4
Solution:
Required number = HCF of differences4665 − 1305 = 3360
6905 − 4665 = 2240
6905 − 1305 = 5600HCF of (3360, 2240, 5600) = 1120
Sum of digits = 1 + 1 + 2 + 0 = 4
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsThree sets of English, Hindi, and Mathematics books must be stacked so that each stack has the same number of books and contains only one subject. The numbers of books are 96, 240, and 336 respectively. What is the total number of stacks?
Correct
Answer: a) 14
Solution:
Maximum equal stack size = HCF of 96, 240, and 336 = 48Number of stacks:
96 ÷ 48 = 2
240 ÷ 48 = 5
336 ÷ 48 = 7Total stacks = 2 + 5 + 7 = 14
Incorrect
Answer: a) 14
Solution:
Maximum equal stack size = HCF of 96, 240, and 336 = 48Number of stacks:
96 ÷ 48 = 2
240 ÷ 48 = 5
336 ÷ 48 = 7Total stacks = 2 + 5 + 7 = 14
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsPassage:
“The prevailing ‘techno-optimism’ suggests that the ‘circular economy’ can decouple economic growth from environmental degradation. This concept posits that by closing material loops—recycling, reusing, and remanufacturing—we can maintain perpetual expansion without exhausting the planet’s finite resources. However, this ignores the second law of thermodynamics: entropy. No recycling process is 100% efficient; energy is dissipated and materials degrade in quality with every cycle. Therefore, a circular economy that continues to prioritize ‘growth’ is a physical impossibility. Real sustainability requires a ‘degrowth’ paradigm that acknowledges planetary boundaries and scales back aggregate consumption.”
Which of the following is the most valid assumption made by the author?
Correct
Answer: b)
Explanation:
The author argues that a growth-oriented circular economy is impossible because entropy ensures energy loss and material degradation.For this argument to hold, it must be assumed that economic growth depends on continuous use and transformation of physical matter and energy. Without this link, entropy would not constrain growth.
Hence, option (b) is the core assumption.
Incorrect
Answer: b)
Explanation:
The author argues that a growth-oriented circular economy is impossible because entropy ensures energy loss and material degradation.For this argument to hold, it must be assumed that economic growth depends on continuous use and transformation of physical matter and energy. Without this link, entropy would not constrain growth.
Hence, option (b) is the core assumption.
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