The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS):
- It is the topmost decision-making body for defense acquisitions and national security strategies.
- The committee includes the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs as a permanent member to ensure legislative coordination.
- It plays a role in internsal security matters, including the formulation of policies to handle domestic insurgency.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is a specialized committee of the Union Cabinet with a narrow but powerful focus on strategic issues.
- Statement 1 is correct; it is the apex body responsible for reviewing and approving high-value capital acquisitions for the Indian Armed Forces and formulating strategies to counter both internal and external threats.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; the membership of the CCS is traditionally restricted to the “Big Five”: the Prime Minister (Chair), Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs, Minister of External Affairs, and Minister of Finance. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs is not a standing member of this specific committee.
- Statement 3 is correct; while its name implies a focus on external threats, its mandate heavily involves internal security, including policies to handle terrorism, insurgency, and major law-and-order crises. The CCS ensures a centralized platform for the highest political leadership to coordinate rapid responses.
- Its recent special meetings on the West Asia conflict highlight its role in protecting national interests during global volatility, ensuring the stability of essential commodities like LPG and LNG.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is a specialized committee of the Union Cabinet with a narrow but powerful focus on strategic issues.
- Statement 1 is correct; it is the apex body responsible for reviewing and approving high-value capital acquisitions for the Indian Armed Forces and formulating strategies to counter both internal and external threats.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; the membership of the CCS is traditionally restricted to the “Big Five”: the Prime Minister (Chair), Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs, Minister of External Affairs, and Minister of Finance. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs is not a standing member of this specific committee.
- Statement 3 is correct; while its name implies a focus on external threats, its mandate heavily involves internal security, including policies to handle terrorism, insurgency, and major law-and-order crises. The CCS ensures a centralized platform for the highest political leadership to coordinate rapid responses.
- Its recent special meetings on the West Asia conflict highlight its role in protecting national interests during global volatility, ensuring the stability of essential commodities like LPG and LNG.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsMatch the following pairs regarding the works of Raja Ravi Varma:
Painting Primary Theme/Character Artistic Significance I. Shakuntala A. Maternal Love 1. Democratization of sacred imagery II. Yashoda and Krishna B. Epic Narrative 2. Masterful use of European Realism III. Saraswati & Lakshmi C. Iconic Deities 3. Standardized popular visual consciousness Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- Raja Ravi Varma (1848–1906) is credited with bridging the gap between traditional Indian art and the modern era.
- His work Shakuntala (I-B-2) is a quintessential example of his use of European academic techniques like perspective and chiaroscuro to depict Indian mythological narratives; it captures the moment she looks back for Dushyanta.
- Yashoda and Krishna (II-A-2) portrays maternal love using European Realism, a technique unconventional for Indian artists of that time; it recently fetched a record-breaking price at auction, underscoring its status as a National Treasure.
- Saraswati & Lakshmi (III-C-3) represent his most influential contribution—the standardization of Hindu deities. By establishing a lithographic press in 1894, Ravi Varma mass-produced these images as affordable oleographs.
- This democratized art, moving sacred imagery from elite temples and palaces into the homes of ordinary citizens. His depictions became so ingrained in the Indian psyche that they continue to shape the “standard” visual representation of these goddesses in calendar art and films today.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Raja Ravi Varma (1848–1906) is credited with bridging the gap between traditional Indian art and the modern era.
- His work Shakuntala (I-B-2) is a quintessential example of his use of European academic techniques like perspective and chiaroscuro to depict Indian mythological narratives; it captures the moment she looks back for Dushyanta.
- Yashoda and Krishna (II-A-2) portrays maternal love using European Realism, a technique unconventional for Indian artists of that time; it recently fetched a record-breaking price at auction, underscoring its status as a National Treasure.
- Saraswati & Lakshmi (III-C-3) represent his most influential contribution—the standardization of Hindu deities. By establishing a lithographic press in 1894, Ravi Varma mass-produced these images as affordable oleographs.
- This democratized art, moving sacred imagery from elite temples and palaces into the homes of ordinary citizens. His depictions became so ingrained in the Indian psyche that they continue to shape the “standard” visual representation of these goddesses in calendar art and films today.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonists, consider the following statements:
- These medications are primarily used to treat Type 1 diabetes by stimulating the pancreas to produce insulin.
- They function by mimicking a natural hormone that slows down gastric emptying to induce satiety.
- In India, these drugs can be legally prescribed by any registered medical practitioner regardless of specialization.
- Recent market trends show a significant decrease in the prices of these drugs due to the influx of generic versions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- GLP-1 receptor agonists represent a significant advancement in metabolic medicine.
- Statement 1 is incorrect; these drugs are approved for Type 2 diabetes and obesity management, not Type 1 diabetes (where insulin production is absent due to autoimmune destruction). They require some pancreatic function to stimulate insulin release.
- Statement 2 is correct; they mimic the natural GLP-1 hormone, which targets brain regions regulating appetite and slows gastric emptying, making the patient feel full longer.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; in India, these medicines are strictly regulated and can only be prescribed by specific specialists: endocrinologists, internal medicine specialists, and cardiologists. Unauthorized sale through online platforms or wellness clinics without such oversight is a growing concern.
- Statement 4 is correct; while originally developed by global pharmaceutical giants, the market has seen a “flooding” of generic versions, which has led to increased accessibility and crashing prices. This has prompted the government to intensify surveillance on businesses to prevent misuse and ensure compliance with prescription protocols.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- GLP-1 receptor agonists represent a significant advancement in metabolic medicine.
- Statement 1 is incorrect; these drugs are approved for Type 2 diabetes and obesity management, not Type 1 diabetes (where insulin production is absent due to autoimmune destruction). They require some pancreatic function to stimulate insulin release.
- Statement 2 is correct; they mimic the natural GLP-1 hormone, which targets brain regions regulating appetite and slows gastric emptying, making the patient feel full longer.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; in India, these medicines are strictly regulated and can only be prescribed by specific specialists: endocrinologists, internal medicine specialists, and cardiologists. Unauthorized sale through online platforms or wellness clinics without such oversight is a growing concern.
- Statement 4 is correct; while originally developed by global pharmaceutical giants, the market has seen a “flooding” of generic versions, which has led to increased accessibility and crashing prices. This has prompted the government to intensify surveillance on businesses to prevent misuse and ensure compliance with prescription protocols.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Sanshodhak’, recently in the news, is best described as:
Correct
Solution: C
- The ‘Sanshodhak’ (Yard 3028) is the fourth and final ship of the Survey Vessel (Large) (SVL) project of the Indian Navy. Its name, meaning “Researcher,” directly reflects its primary function as a data-collection platform.
- Statement (c) is the correct description. Built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), it boasts over 80% indigenous content, aligning with the “Aatmanirbhar Bharat” initiative. The vessel is designed to replace the older Sandhayak Class ships and is equipped with state-of-the-art tools such as Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (AUV), Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROV), and Digital Side Scan Sonar.
- Its primary applications include performing hydrographic surveys of port approaches, determining navigational channels, and gathering oceanographic and geophysical data. This data is critical for both defense applications (naval operations) and civil applications (maritime trade and environmental research).
- Achieving speeds of over 18 knots with a displacement of 3,400 tons, it enhances India’s maritime prowess in the Indian Ocean Region by ensuring safe and mapped passage for ships.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The ‘Sanshodhak’ (Yard 3028) is the fourth and final ship of the Survey Vessel (Large) (SVL) project of the Indian Navy. Its name, meaning “Researcher,” directly reflects its primary function as a data-collection platform.
- Statement (c) is the correct description. Built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), it boasts over 80% indigenous content, aligning with the “Aatmanirbhar Bharat” initiative. The vessel is designed to replace the older Sandhayak Class ships and is equipped with state-of-the-art tools such as Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (AUV), Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROV), and Digital Side Scan Sonar.
- Its primary applications include performing hydrographic surveys of port approaches, determining navigational channels, and gathering oceanographic and geophysical data. This data is critical for both defense applications (naval operations) and civil applications (maritime trade and environmental research).
- Achieving speeds of over 18 knots with a displacement of 3,400 tons, it enhances India’s maritime prowess in the Indian Ocean Region by ensuring safe and mapped passage for ships.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the geography of Indonesia:
- It is the world’s largest archipelagic state and shares a land border with the Philippines.
- The country sits on the Sahul Shelf and does not possess any active volcanic arcs.
- Jakarta, the capital, is situated on the island of Sumatra.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Indonesia’s geography is defined by its tectonic complexity and archipelagic nature.
- Statement 1 is incorrect; while it is the world’s largest archipelagic state, it shares land borders with only three countries: Malaysia (on Borneo), Papua New Guinea (on New Guinea), and Timor-Leste (on Timor). It does not share a land border with the Philippines.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; Indonesia sits between the Sunda Shelf and the Sahul Shelf and hosts one of the highest densities of active volcanoes in the world, forming a massive volcanic arc from Sumatra to the Lesser Sunda Islands. It is a central part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; Jakarta is located on the island of Java, not Sumatra. The region’s seismic activity is highlighted by recent earthquakes in the Molucca Sea, a highly active tectonic zone. This tectonic position makes Indonesia a critical site for studying earthquake dynamics and tsunami modeling. Most of its larger islands feature rugged mountain ranges and dense tropical rainforests, contributing to its status as a biodiversity hotspot.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Indonesia’s geography is defined by its tectonic complexity and archipelagic nature.
- Statement 1 is incorrect; while it is the world’s largest archipelagic state, it shares land borders with only three countries: Malaysia (on Borneo), Papua New Guinea (on New Guinea), and Timor-Leste (on Timor). It does not share a land border with the Philippines.
- Statement 2 is incorrect; Indonesia sits between the Sunda Shelf and the Sahul Shelf and hosts one of the highest densities of active volcanoes in the world, forming a massive volcanic arc from Sumatra to the Lesser Sunda Islands. It is a central part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.
- Statement 3 is incorrect; Jakarta is located on the island of Java, not Sumatra. The region’s seismic activity is highlighted by recent earthquakes in the Molucca Sea, a highly active tectonic zone. This tectonic position makes Indonesia a critical site for studying earthquake dynamics and tsunami modeling. Most of its larger islands feature rugged mountain ranges and dense tropical rainforests, contributing to its status as a biodiversity hotspot.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing (ABS), consider the following statements:
- It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
- It aims to ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources.
- The protocol covers traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources held by indigenous and local communities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Nagoya Protocol is a landmark international treaty that functions as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), not CITES.
- Statement 1 is therefore incorrect. The primary objective of the protocol is to implement one of the three core goals of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. This involves creating a transparent legal framework for both providers and users of these resources.
- Statement 2 and 3 are correct as the protocol explicitly addresses the utilization of genetic resources and the traditional knowledge (TK) associated with them. It mandates that when such knowledge is accessed, it must be done with the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) or approval and involvement of the indigenous and local communities, and that Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT) for benefit-sharing must be established.
- India is a significant party to this protocol, having ratified it in 2012. The protocol is essential for preventing “biopiracy” and ensuring that the conservation of biological diversity is supported by the economic benefits derived from its use. By providing legal certainty and transparency, it encourages research and development while protecting the rights of sovereign nations over their natural resources.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Nagoya Protocol is a landmark international treaty that functions as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), not CITES.
- Statement 1 is therefore incorrect. The primary objective of the protocol is to implement one of the three core goals of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. This involves creating a transparent legal framework for both providers and users of these resources.
- Statement 2 and 3 are correct as the protocol explicitly addresses the utilization of genetic resources and the traditional knowledge (TK) associated with them. It mandates that when such knowledge is accessed, it must be done with the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) or approval and involvement of the indigenous and local communities, and that Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT) for benefit-sharing must be established.
- India is a significant party to this protocol, having ratified it in 2012. The protocol is essential for preventing “biopiracy” and ensuring that the conservation of biological diversity is supported by the economic benefits derived from its use. By providing legal certainty and transparency, it encourages research and development while protecting the rights of sovereign nations over their natural resources.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsIn the context of the Artemis II mission, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Artemis II mission, scheduled for 2026, is the first crewed mission under NASA’s Artemis program.
- Statement (a) is incorrect because Artemis II is a test-ride mission that will fly around the Moon and return to Earth without landing on the lunar surface; the actual landing is planned for subsequent missions like Artemis III.
- Statement (b) is incorrect because while it is the first time humans will venture to the Moon’s neighborhood since the Apollo 17 mission in 1972, it is not since Apollo 11. Statement (d) is incorrect as the mission duration is approximately 10 days, involving a lunar flyby rather than a long-term orbital stay or base establishment.
- Statement (c) is correct because the mission relies on the Space Launch System (SLS), currently the most powerful rocket in NASA’s arsenal, and the Orion spacecraft, which houses the crew.
- A key feature of Artemis II is its high-power trajectory, allowing it to reach the Moon in just a few days, unlike fuel-efficient uncrewed missions like Chandrayaan-3 that take several weeks. By reaching 6,500 km from the Moon’s far side, the crew will travel farther into space than any human mission in history, validating critical life-support systems for future deep-space exploration.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Artemis II mission, scheduled for 2026, is the first crewed mission under NASA’s Artemis program.
- Statement (a) is incorrect because Artemis II is a test-ride mission that will fly around the Moon and return to Earth without landing on the lunar surface; the actual landing is planned for subsequent missions like Artemis III.
- Statement (b) is incorrect because while it is the first time humans will venture to the Moon’s neighborhood since the Apollo 17 mission in 1972, it is not since Apollo 11. Statement (d) is incorrect as the mission duration is approximately 10 days, involving a lunar flyby rather than a long-term orbital stay or base establishment.
- Statement (c) is correct because the mission relies on the Space Launch System (SLS), currently the most powerful rocket in NASA’s arsenal, and the Orion spacecraft, which houses the crew.
- A key feature of Artemis II is its high-power trajectory, allowing it to reach the Moon in just a few days, unlike fuel-efficient uncrewed missions like Chandrayaan-3 that take several weeks. By reaching 6,500 km from the Moon’s far side, the crew will travel farther into space than any human mission in history, validating critical life-support systems for future deep-space exploration.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries share a land border with Algeria?
- Tunisia
- Libya
- Niger
- Egypt
- Morocco
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- Algeria, the largest country in Africa and the Arab world, is located in the Maghreb region of North Africa. It has a complex geography and shares land borders with seven entities. These include Tunisia (northeast), Libya (east), Niger (southeast), Mali and Mauritania (southwest), Western Sahara (west), and Morocco (northwest). Egypt does not share a border with Algeria; it is separated from Algeria by Libya.
- Geographically, Algeria is dominated by the Sahara Desert, which covers more than 80% of its territory. The northern part of the country features the Atlas Mountains (Tell Atlas and Saharan Atlas) and the fertile Tell region along the Mediterranean coast, where the majority of the population resides.
- Strategically, Algeria is vital for India’s energy security as a major producer of oil and natural gas. Additionally, it is a key source of phosphates and urea, which are critical for India’s agricultural sector. The recent 7th round of Foreign Office Consultations in Algiers emphasized strengthening cooperation in sectors like pharmaceuticals, mining, and counter-terrorism.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Algeria, the largest country in Africa and the Arab world, is located in the Maghreb region of North Africa. It has a complex geography and shares land borders with seven entities. These include Tunisia (northeast), Libya (east), Niger (southeast), Mali and Mauritania (southwest), Western Sahara (west), and Morocco (northwest). Egypt does not share a border with Algeria; it is separated from Algeria by Libya.
- Geographically, Algeria is dominated by the Sahara Desert, which covers more than 80% of its territory. The northern part of the country features the Atlas Mountains (Tell Atlas and Saharan Atlas) and the fertile Tell region along the Mediterranean coast, where the majority of the population resides.
- Strategically, Algeria is vital for India’s energy security as a major producer of oil and natural gas. Additionally, it is a key source of phosphates and urea, which are critical for India’s agricultural sector. The recent 7th round of Foreign Office Consultations in Algiers emphasized strengthening cooperation in sectors like pharmaceuticals, mining, and counter-terrorism.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Bhavasagara Referral Centre:
- It is the only facility in Asia dedicated to the study of deep-sea invertebrates and vertebrates.
- The centre is authorized to provide commercial licenses for deep-sea mining in the Indian Ocean.
- It was established by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) to monitor coral bleaching in the Arabian Sea.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect; while it is a significant national repository, it is not the “only” such facility in Asia.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the centre is a scientific and taxonomic repository, not a regulatory body for mining licenses. Commercial licenses for deep-sea mining in international waters are regulated by the International Seabed Authority (ISA), and within Indian waters, other government departments handle such permissions.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as the centre was not established by the WWF; it is a specialized hub of the Centre for Marine Living Resources & Ecology (CMLRE), which is a government body under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
- The Bhavasagara Referral Centre’s true role is to preserve and document deep-sea marine life. It houses a vast collection of geo-referenced voucher specimens and genetic data. Its designation as a National Repository under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, gives it the statutory authority to hold “Type Specimens” of newly discovered species. This is essential for India’s marine biodiversity framework and supports the scientific data needed for the Blue Economy, but it does not involve the regulatory or commercial roles mentioned in the incorrect statements.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect; while it is a significant national repository, it is not the “only” such facility in Asia.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the centre is a scientific and taxonomic repository, not a regulatory body for mining licenses. Commercial licenses for deep-sea mining in international waters are regulated by the International Seabed Authority (ISA), and within Indian waters, other government departments handle such permissions.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as the centre was not established by the WWF; it is a specialized hub of the Centre for Marine Living Resources & Ecology (CMLRE), which is a government body under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
- The Bhavasagara Referral Centre’s true role is to preserve and document deep-sea marine life. It houses a vast collection of geo-referenced voucher specimens and genetic data. Its designation as a National Repository under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, gives it the statutory authority to hold “Type Specimens” of newly discovered species. This is essential for India’s marine biodiversity framework and supports the scientific data needed for the Blue Economy, but it does not involve the regulatory or commercial roles mentioned in the incorrect statements.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsIn the context of the Nagoya Protocol, what does the term “Prior Informed Consent (PIC)” primarily refer to?
Correct
Solution: C
- Prior Informed Consent (PIC) is a fundamental pillar of the Nagoya Protocol.
- Statement (a) refers to Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT), which is the second pillar of the protocol. While PIC is about the “permission to access,” MAT is the “contractual agreement” on how the results, profits, or other benefits will be shared later.
- Statement (b) is incorrect; while the ABS Clearing-House is used for information exchange, PIC is a legal requirement for access, not just a publication mandate.
- Statement (c) is the correct definition: it is the formal administrative permission granted by the government (specifically the National Competent Authority) of a country that provides genetic resources. This consent must be obtained before (prior to) the resources are accessed. It ensures that the provider country is fully aware of what is being taken and for what purpose.
- Statement (d) is incorrect as the Nagoya Protocol deals with sovereign rights of nations over their resources, not a general UN consent for exploration. In India, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is the body that grants PIC, ensuring that the interests of local communities and the nation are protected before any biological resource is utilized by researchers or companies.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Prior Informed Consent (PIC) is a fundamental pillar of the Nagoya Protocol.
- Statement (a) refers to Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT), which is the second pillar of the protocol. While PIC is about the “permission to access,” MAT is the “contractual agreement” on how the results, profits, or other benefits will be shared later.
- Statement (b) is incorrect; while the ABS Clearing-House is used for information exchange, PIC is a legal requirement for access, not just a publication mandate.
- Statement (c) is the correct definition: it is the formal administrative permission granted by the government (specifically the National Competent Authority) of a country that provides genetic resources. This consent must be obtained before (prior to) the resources are accessed. It ensures that the provider country is fully aware of what is being taken and for what purpose.
- Statement (d) is incorrect as the Nagoya Protocol deals with sovereign rights of nations over their resources, not a general UN consent for exploration. In India, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is the body that grants PIC, ensuring that the interests of local communities and the nation are protected before any biological resource is utilized by researchers or companies.
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