The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about Kaziranga National Park?
- It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.
- The park lies entirely in Arunachal Pradesh.
- It contains semi-evergreen forests, grasslands, and marshes.
- It lies at the convergence of the Eastern Himalayas and the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct: BirdLife International has designated Kaziranga as an Important Bird Area (IBA) due to its high avian diversity, including both resident and migratory birds.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Kaziranga lies in Assam, specifically in Golaghat and Nagaon districts, not Arunachal Pradesh.
- Statement 3 is correct: Kaziranga has diverse habitats, including tall grasslands, marshes, and tropical moist forests, supporting wide-ranging fauna.
- Statement 4 is correct: Geographically, Kaziranga lies at the intersection of the Eastern Himalayas and the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot, making it ecologically strategic.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct: BirdLife International has designated Kaziranga as an Important Bird Area (IBA) due to its high avian diversity, including both resident and migratory birds.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Kaziranga lies in Assam, specifically in Golaghat and Nagaon districts, not Arunachal Pradesh.
- Statement 3 is correct: Kaziranga has diverse habitats, including tall grasslands, marshes, and tropical moist forests, supporting wide-ranging fauna.
- Statement 4 is correct: Geographically, Kaziranga lies at the intersection of the Eastern Himalayas and the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot, making it ecologically strategic.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsType 5 Diabetes is best characterized by which of the following?
Correct
Solution: D
- Type 5 Diabetes, also referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is primarily observed in young, underweight individuals from low- and middle-income countries, especially in Asia and Africa.
- Unlike Type 1 (autoimmune) or Type 2 (obesity-driven) diabetes, Type 5 results from severe protein-energy malnutrition, often during early developmental years.
- The pancreas produces insulin, but due to poor metabolic adaptation and nutrient reserves, standard insulin therapy can induce hypoglycemia.
- Treatment requires small insulin doses, oral drugs, and nutritional rehabilitation, especially protein and micronutrient supplementation.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Type 5 Diabetes, also referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is primarily observed in young, underweight individuals from low- and middle-income countries, especially in Asia and Africa.
- Unlike Type 1 (autoimmune) or Type 2 (obesity-driven) diabetes, Type 5 results from severe protein-energy malnutrition, often during early developmental years.
- The pancreas produces insulin, but due to poor metabolic adaptation and nutrient reserves, standard insulin therapy can induce hypoglycemia.
- Treatment requires small insulin doses, oral drugs, and nutritional rehabilitation, especially protein and micronutrient supplementation.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are potential consequences of a GPS spoofing attack?
- Aircraft may be redirected to incorrect coordinates during autopilot navigation.
- Banks may face real-time transaction failure due to time drift in GPS.
- Naval vessels may misidentify their location, violating territorial waters.
- Cyber attackers may gain root access to GPS satellites through spoofing.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
- GPS spoofing is a cybersecurity threat in which false signals are transmitted to GPS receivers, causing them to miscalculate their location or time.
- Statement 1 is correct because aircraft, particularly during autopilot operations, heavily depend on GPS data for navigation. A spoofed signal could redirect them to erroneous coordinates, risking safety.
- Statement 2 is also correct since banking networks use GPS-based time synchronization for precise timestamping in financial transactions; spoofing can introduce subtle time drifts, leading to delays or mismatches.
- Statement 3 is valid as well; maritime vessels use GPS to navigate international waters, and a spoofed position can lead them to unknowingly violate territorial boundaries, potentially triggering diplomatic or military tensions.
- Statement 4 is incorrect — GPS spoofing deceives the end-user receiver, not the satellite infrastructure. Attackers cannot gain control over GPS satellites, as they are managed by secure ground control systems with no direct access via signal spoofing.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- GPS spoofing is a cybersecurity threat in which false signals are transmitted to GPS receivers, causing them to miscalculate their location or time.
- Statement 1 is correct because aircraft, particularly during autopilot operations, heavily depend on GPS data for navigation. A spoofed signal could redirect them to erroneous coordinates, risking safety.
- Statement 2 is also correct since banking networks use GPS-based time synchronization for precise timestamping in financial transactions; spoofing can introduce subtle time drifts, leading to delays or mismatches.
- Statement 3 is valid as well; maritime vessels use GPS to navigate international waters, and a spoofed position can lead them to unknowingly violate territorial boundaries, potentially triggering diplomatic or military tensions.
- Statement 4 is incorrect — GPS spoofing deceives the end-user receiver, not the satellite infrastructure. Attackers cannot gain control over GPS satellites, as they are managed by secure ground control systems with no direct access via signal spoofing.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- WHO was founded as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization.
- The Director-General of WHO is nominated by the United Nations General Assembly.
- WHO has operational command over national health ministries during pandemics.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is wrong — WHO was established on 7 April 1948 and not as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization, although it inherited many of its health goals.
- Statement 2 is incorrect — the Director-General is elected by the World Health Assembly, not by the UNGA.
- Statement 3 is false — WHO is not an enforcement agency; it coordinates and advises but does not override national sovereignty, even during health emergencies. It cannot command health ministries.
About the World Health Organization (WHO):
- Established in: 1948, as a specialized agency of the United Nations focusing on international public health.
- Headquarters: Based in Geneva, Switzerland.
Core Objectives:
- Promote universal health coverage.
- Combat disease outbreaks, ensure health security, and advance public well-being.
- Support countries in policy development, emergency preparedness, and health system strengthening.
Governance Structure:
- World Health Assembly (WHA): Highest decision-making body; meets annually.
- Secretariat: Executes WHA’s decisions under the Director-General.
- Regional Offices: Six regional offices coordinate implementation (e.g., South-East Asia, Africa).
- Funding Mechanism:
- Assessed contributions: Mandatory membership dues.
- Voluntary contributions: Additional funding from countries, UN bodies, private sector, and philanthropies.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is wrong — WHO was established on 7 April 1948 and not as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization, although it inherited many of its health goals.
- Statement 2 is incorrect — the Director-General is elected by the World Health Assembly, not by the UNGA.
- Statement 3 is false — WHO is not an enforcement agency; it coordinates and advises but does not override national sovereignty, even during health emergencies. It cannot command health ministries.
About the World Health Organization (WHO):
- Established in: 1948, as a specialized agency of the United Nations focusing on international public health.
- Headquarters: Based in Geneva, Switzerland.
Core Objectives:
- Promote universal health coverage.
- Combat disease outbreaks, ensure health security, and advance public well-being.
- Support countries in policy development, emergency preparedness, and health system strengthening.
Governance Structure:
- World Health Assembly (WHA): Highest decision-making body; meets annually.
- Secretariat: Executes WHA’s decisions under the Director-General.
- Regional Offices: Six regional offices coordinate implementation (e.g., South-East Asia, Africa).
- Funding Mechanism:
- Assessed contributions: Mandatory membership dues.
- Voluntary contributions: Additional funding from countries, UN bodies, private sector, and philanthropies.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best explains why TPUs (Tensor Processing Unit) outperform GPUs (Graphics Processing Unit) in deep learning model training?
Correct
Solution: D
- TPUs (Tensor Processing Units) are application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) designed by Google, built explicitly to accelerate tensor operations that are foundational to deep learning models.
- Unlike GPUs, which are general-purpose parallel processors optimized originally for graphics rendering and later adapted for machine learning, TPUs are architected to handle matrix multiplications efficiently, with hardware-level support for tensor operations like dot products and activation functions.
- This makes TPUs significantly faster and more energy-efficient than GPUs in training and inference of large-scale models. Their specialization allows Google to optimize performance in services like Search and YouTube.
Key Differences between TPU vs GPU vs CPU:
Feature CPU (Central Processing Unit) GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) Nature General-purpose processor Parallel processor, mainly for visual and AI tasks Application-specific processor for machine learning Primary Use Handles routine computing and sequential operations Ideal for graphics rendering and ML parallel tasks Specialised for deep learning tensor computations Cores 2–16 per chip Thousands per chip for simultaneous task execution Fewer, highly specialised cores for AI matrix operations Performance Efficient in sequential tasks Better for concurrent, parallel tasks Fastest in training and inference of ML models Flexibility Highly versatile Moderately flexible Narrow-purpose, highly optimised Example Use Word processing, browsing, OS control Gaming, video editing, ML model training Google Search AI, YouTube AI, DeepMind models Incorrect
Solution: D
- TPUs (Tensor Processing Units) are application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) designed by Google, built explicitly to accelerate tensor operations that are foundational to deep learning models.
- Unlike GPUs, which are general-purpose parallel processors optimized originally for graphics rendering and later adapted for machine learning, TPUs are architected to handle matrix multiplications efficiently, with hardware-level support for tensor operations like dot products and activation functions.
- This makes TPUs significantly faster and more energy-efficient than GPUs in training and inference of large-scale models. Their specialization allows Google to optimize performance in services like Search and YouTube.
Key Differences between TPU vs GPU vs CPU:
Feature CPU (Central Processing Unit) GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) Nature General-purpose processor Parallel processor, mainly for visual and AI tasks Application-specific processor for machine learning Primary Use Handles routine computing and sequential operations Ideal for graphics rendering and ML parallel tasks Specialised for deep learning tensor computations Cores 2–16 per chip Thousands per chip for simultaneous task execution Fewer, highly specialised cores for AI matrix operations Performance Efficient in sequential tasks Better for concurrent, parallel tasks Fastest in training and inference of ML models Flexibility Highly versatile Moderately flexible Narrow-purpose, highly optimised Example Use Word processing, browsing, OS control Gaming, video editing, ML model training Google Search AI, YouTube AI, DeepMind models -
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development)’s role in India’s financial and development landscape?
- It works under the Ministry of Finance and is exempted from CRR and SLR norms.
- It can issue both tax-free and taxable bonds for infrastructure financing.
- It is a key component of the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP).
- It undertakes direct construction of public infrastructure like highways and dams.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- NaBFID is supervised by the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, and is exempt from regulatory liquidity norms like Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to enable long-term lending.
- Statement 2 is correct: NaBFID can issue taxable and tax-free bonds, especially infrastructure bonds, under Section 54EC of the Income Tax Act.
- Statement 3 is also correct—it plays a catalytic role in financing projects under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), which aims to invest over ₹100 lakh crore by 2025.
- However, Statement 4 is incorrect—NaBFID does not engage in construction activity; it is a financier, not an executing agency.
About NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development):
- What it is: A Development Finance Institution (DFI) dedicated to funding long-term infrastructure projects across India.
- Established under: NaBFID Act, 2021.
- Regulated by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI).
Objectives:
- Fill gaps in long-term non-recourse infrastructure finance.
- Support growth of India’s bond and derivatives markets.
- Accelerate sustainable economic development.
- Strengthen the ecosystem for project financing in clean energy, transport, and water.
Key Features:
- Capital base to be scaled to ₹1 trillion with institutional support.
- Focus on medium to long-term funds (1–5+ years).
- Plans joint research, workshops, and capacity building with global partners like NDB.
- NaBFID promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs) and ensures financial viability of infrastructure projects.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- NaBFID is supervised by the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, and is exempt from regulatory liquidity norms like Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to enable long-term lending.
- Statement 2 is correct: NaBFID can issue taxable and tax-free bonds, especially infrastructure bonds, under Section 54EC of the Income Tax Act.
- Statement 3 is also correct—it plays a catalytic role in financing projects under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), which aims to invest over ₹100 lakh crore by 2025.
- However, Statement 4 is incorrect—NaBFID does not engage in construction activity; it is a financier, not an executing agency.
About NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development):
- What it is: A Development Finance Institution (DFI) dedicated to funding long-term infrastructure projects across India.
- Established under: NaBFID Act, 2021.
- Regulated by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI).
Objectives:
- Fill gaps in long-term non-recourse infrastructure finance.
- Support growth of India’s bond and derivatives markets.
- Accelerate sustainable economic development.
- Strengthen the ecosystem for project financing in clean energy, transport, and water.
Key Features:
- Capital base to be scaled to ₹1 trillion with institutional support.
- Focus on medium to long-term funds (1–5+ years).
- Plans joint research, workshops, and capacity building with global partners like NDB.
- NaBFID promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs) and ensures financial viability of infrastructure projects.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about LiDAR systems:
- LiDAR can detect groundwater flow using subsurface light reflection.
- LiDAR systems only operate during daylight due to solar power dependency.
- LiDAR works on radar frequencies to image geological formations.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect: LiDAR is an optical remote sensing technology that uses laser pulses to measure distances to Earth’s surface. It cannot penetrate below the surface to detect groundwater flow, which requires methods like Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR) or seismic imaging. Laser light is scattered or absorbed in opaque mediums like soil or rock, making subsurface detection impossible for LiDAR.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: LiDAR is an active sensor, meaning it generates its own laser light source. This allows it to operate regardless of sunlight, enabling day or night use, unlike passive sensors that depend on reflected sunlight.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: LiDAR does not use radar frequencies. It operates in the near-infrared to green spectrum, whereas radar systems like SAR (Synthetic Aperture Radar) work in microwave bands.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect: LiDAR is an optical remote sensing technology that uses laser pulses to measure distances to Earth’s surface. It cannot penetrate below the surface to detect groundwater flow, which requires methods like Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR) or seismic imaging. Laser light is scattered or absorbed in opaque mediums like soil or rock, making subsurface detection impossible for LiDAR.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: LiDAR is an active sensor, meaning it generates its own laser light source. This allows it to operate regardless of sunlight, enabling day or night use, unlike passive sensors that depend on reflected sunlight.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: LiDAR does not use radar frequencies. It operates in the near-infrared to green spectrum, whereas radar systems like SAR (Synthetic Aperture Radar) work in microwave bands.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gravity Energy Storage systems:
- They require high ambient temperatures to function optimally.
- They have low maintenance needs due to fewer chemical components.
- They offer long-duration energy discharge suitable for grid stabilization.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect: GES operates by converting gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy, which is independent of ambient temperature. Unlike thermal storage systems (e.g., molten salts) that require specific thermal conditions, GES functions efficiently regardless of external temperature.
- Statement 2 is correct: Gravity Energy Storage (GES) systems use mechanical methods—such as lifting and lowering massive weights—to store and release energy. Since they contain no chemical reactions or fluids, they experience minimal degradation over time. This contributes to low maintenance needs, making them cost-effective and reliable over decades-long operational lifespans, unlike batteries which degrade after thousands of charge-discharge cycles.
- Statement 3 is correct: GES systems are designed for long-duration discharge, typically ranging from hours to a full day, making them ideal for grid stabilization. They can store excess energy generated during periods of high renewable production (e.g., solar or wind) and release it during peak demand or low production periods, ensuring grid reliability.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect: GES operates by converting gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy, which is independent of ambient temperature. Unlike thermal storage systems (e.g., molten salts) that require specific thermal conditions, GES functions efficiently regardless of external temperature.
- Statement 2 is correct: Gravity Energy Storage (GES) systems use mechanical methods—such as lifting and lowering massive weights—to store and release energy. Since they contain no chemical reactions or fluids, they experience minimal degradation over time. This contributes to low maintenance needs, making them cost-effective and reliable over decades-long operational lifespans, unlike batteries which degrade after thousands of charge-discharge cycles.
- Statement 3 is correct: GES systems are designed for long-duration discharge, typically ranging from hours to a full day, making them ideal for grid stabilization. They can store excess energy generated during periods of high renewable production (e.g., solar or wind) and release it during peak demand or low production periods, ensuring grid reliability.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about neutrinos.
- Neutrinos are affected by electromagnetic fields due to their spin.
- Supernovae emit vast quantities of neutrinos.
- Detecting neutrinos can help study the Earth’s interior.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Although neutrinos have spin, they are electrically neutral and therefore not influenced by electromagnetic fields. Unlike charged particles (such as electrons or protons), neutrinos do not interact via the electromagnetic force, which is why they can pass through entire planets with minimal interaction.
- Statement 2 is correct: Supernovae are among the most prolific sources of neutrinos in the universe. In a stellar explosion, nearly 99% of the energy is released in the form of neutrinos, making them key indicators of such cataclysmic events.
Statement 3 is correct: Geoneutrinos, a specific type of neutrino emitted from radioactive decay in the Earth’s interior, offer scientists a non-invasive way to study the mantle’s heat flow, radioactive composition, and thermal history — critical for understanding Earth’s internal structure.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Although neutrinos have spin, they are electrically neutral and therefore not influenced by electromagnetic fields. Unlike charged particles (such as electrons or protons), neutrinos do not interact via the electromagnetic force, which is why they can pass through entire planets with minimal interaction.
- Statement 2 is correct: Supernovae are among the most prolific sources of neutrinos in the universe. In a stellar explosion, nearly 99% of the energy is released in the form of neutrinos, making them key indicators of such cataclysmic events.
Statement 3 is correct: Geoneutrinos, a specific type of neutrino emitted from radioactive decay in the Earth’s interior, offer scientists a non-invasive way to study the mantle’s heat flow, radioactive composition, and thermal history — critical for understanding Earth’s internal structure.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs):
- They are notified under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
- They serve as transition zones between areas of higher and lower ecological protection.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the central government to declare such zones.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
- Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are notified around Protected Areas like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to act as buffer or transition zones, minimizing external pressures on core ecosystems.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 deals specifically with the regulation of forest land diversion for non-forest purposes and does not cover ESZs.
- Statement 2 is correct. ESZs function as “shock absorbers”, providing a graded buffer between ecologically critical areas and zones of lesser protection. They are essential for maintaining ecological balance and ensuring sustainable development in adjoining landscapes.
- Statement 3 is also correct. Under Section 3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the central government is empowered to declare ESZs, laying down measures to protect the environment. These include restrictions on industrial operations, waste disposal, mining, and construction.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
- Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are notified around Protected Areas like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to act as buffer or transition zones, minimizing external pressures on core ecosystems.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 deals specifically with the regulation of forest land diversion for non-forest purposes and does not cover ESZs.
- Statement 2 is correct. ESZs function as “shock absorbers”, providing a graded buffer between ecologically critical areas and zones of lesser protection. They are essential for maintaining ecological balance and ensuring sustainable development in adjoining landscapes.
- Statement 3 is also correct. Under Section 3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the central government is empowered to declare ESZs, laying down measures to protect the environment. These include restrictions on industrial operations, waste disposal, mining, and construction.
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