The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements correctly describes the withdrawal process from a treaty under the Paris Agreement?
Correct
Solution: C
Under the Paris Agreement, a country cannot withdraw at will or immediately without adhering to specific provisions. The withdrawal process is governed by Article 28 of the Agreement.
Solution c) is correct because a country is eligible to withdraw only after three years from the date the treaty enters into force for that party. Furthermore, even after initiating the withdrawal process, the withdrawal does not take immediate effect. It becomes effective one year after the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) receives the written notification of withdrawal.
This process ensures that countries cannot arbitrarily exit the Agreement and maintains stability and continuity in global climate efforts. For example, the United States initiated its withdrawal in 2019 but the process was only completed in 2020.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Under the Paris Agreement, a country cannot withdraw at will or immediately without adhering to specific provisions. The withdrawal process is governed by Article 28 of the Agreement.
Solution c) is correct because a country is eligible to withdraw only after three years from the date the treaty enters into force for that party. Furthermore, even after initiating the withdrawal process, the withdrawal does not take immediate effect. It becomes effective one year after the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) receives the written notification of withdrawal.
This process ensures that countries cannot arbitrarily exit the Agreement and maintains stability and continuity in global climate efforts. For example, the United States initiated its withdrawal in 2019 but the process was only completed in 2020.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the long-term ripple effects of space junk:
- It can harm terrestrial ecosystems indirectly by altering the upper atmosphere.
- Changes in the stratosphere due to space debris can disrupt weather patterns.
- Burning space junk increases the concentration of ozone in the upper atmosphere.
- Metals from space debris can catalyze chemical reactions affecting climate systems.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Statement 1 is correct: Alterations in the upper atmosphere affect ecosystems indirectly.
Statement 2 is correct: Stratospheric changes due to pollutants can disrupt weather patterns.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Space junk contributes to ozone depletion, not an increase.
Statement 4 is correct: Metals like aluminum oxide catalyze reactions impacting climate systems.
About Space Junk and Its Impact:
- Definition:Space junk includes defunct satellites, rocket stages, and other debris left in orbit or disintegrated during re-entry.
- Pollutants Released:Burning satellites release aluminum, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and black carbon, which accumulate in the stratosphere.
- Ozone Layer Threat:Aluminum oxide acts as a catalyst for ozone depletion, counteracting the success of the Montreal Protocol that reduced CFCs.
- Stratospheric Changes:Pollutants like copper and other metals can alter atmospheric chemistry and promote cloud formation.
- Climate Impacts:Soot particles absorb solar energy, potentially warming the atmosphere and disrupting natural climate patterns.
- Long-Term Ripple Effects:Alterations in the upper atmosphere may indirectly harm ecosystems, weather patterns, and human health on Earth.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Statement 1 is correct: Alterations in the upper atmosphere affect ecosystems indirectly.
Statement 2 is correct: Stratospheric changes due to pollutants can disrupt weather patterns.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Space junk contributes to ozone depletion, not an increase.
Statement 4 is correct: Metals like aluminum oxide catalyze reactions impacting climate systems.
About Space Junk and Its Impact:
- Definition:Space junk includes defunct satellites, rocket stages, and other debris left in orbit or disintegrated during re-entry.
- Pollutants Released:Burning satellites release aluminum, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and black carbon, which accumulate in the stratosphere.
- Ozone Layer Threat:Aluminum oxide acts as a catalyst for ozone depletion, counteracting the success of the Montreal Protocol that reduced CFCs.
- Stratospheric Changes:Pollutants like copper and other metals can alter atmospheric chemistry and promote cloud formation.
- Climate Impacts:Soot particles absorb solar energy, potentially warming the atmosphere and disrupting natural climate patterns.
- Long-Term Ripple Effects:Alterations in the upper atmosphere may indirectly harm ecosystems, weather patterns, and human health on Earth.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about tuberculosis (TB):
- Pulmonary TB is caused by the Mycobacterium leprae bacterium.
- Weight loss, fatigue, and fever are common symptoms of TB.
- TB can be transmitted through droplets expelled when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Tuberculosis (TB) is primarily caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which affects the lungs (pulmonary TB). However, Statement 1 is incorrect, as Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, not TB.
Statement 2 is correct because common symptoms of TB include weight loss, persistent fatigue, fever, night sweats, and a chronic cough. These symptoms often reflect the body’s response to the infection.
Statement 3 is also correct, as TB is highly contagious and spreads via respiratory droplets expelled when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. This mode of transmission makes TB a significant public health concern, especially in crowded or poorly ventilated environments.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Tuberculosis (TB) is primarily caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which affects the lungs (pulmonary TB). However, Statement 1 is incorrect, as Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, not TB.
Statement 2 is correct because common symptoms of TB include weight loss, persistent fatigue, fever, night sweats, and a chronic cough. These symptoms often reflect the body’s response to the infection.
Statement 3 is also correct, as TB is highly contagious and spreads via respiratory droplets expelled when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. This mode of transmission makes TB a significant public health concern, especially in crowded or poorly ventilated environments.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about uranium isotopes and fission:
- U-235 is the only isotope of uranium capable of undergoing nuclear fission.
- U-238 is the dominant isotope in natural uranium and is non-fissile.
- U-235 in nuclear reactors undergoes fusion to release energy.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: B
Uranium isotopes play a critical role in nuclear energy production.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while U-235 is fissile and capable of undergoing nuclear fission to release energy, it is not the only fissile isotope; for instance, isotopes like Pu-239 also undergo fission.
Statement 2 is correct, as U-238 is the most abundant isotope in natural uranium (comprising about 99.3%) and is non-fissile, meaning it cannot sustain a chain reaction. However, U-238 can absorb neutrons to form Pu-239, which is fissile.
Statement 3 is incorrect because U-235 releases energy through nuclear fission, where its nucleus splits into smaller nuclei upon absorbing a neutron, not through fusion, which involves combining nuclei. This distinction is essential for understanding the mechanics of nuclear reactors, where fission, not fusion, is the source of energy production.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Uranium isotopes play a critical role in nuclear energy production.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while U-235 is fissile and capable of undergoing nuclear fission to release energy, it is not the only fissile isotope; for instance, isotopes like Pu-239 also undergo fission.
Statement 2 is correct, as U-238 is the most abundant isotope in natural uranium (comprising about 99.3%) and is non-fissile, meaning it cannot sustain a chain reaction. However, U-238 can absorb neutrons to form Pu-239, which is fissile.
Statement 3 is incorrect because U-235 releases energy through nuclear fission, where its nucleus splits into smaller nuclei upon absorbing a neutron, not through fusion, which involves combining nuclei. This distinction is essential for understanding the mechanics of nuclear reactors, where fission, not fusion, is the source of energy production.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsRNA editing is primarily characterized by:
Correct
Solution: B
RNA editing involves making transient and precise alterations in RNA molecules. Unlike DNA editing, which induces permanent genetic changes, RNA editing does not modify the genome itself. This reversibility offers a safer therapeutic option with reduced long-term risks, making it particularly suitable for treating genetic disorders.
Incorrect
Solution: B
RNA editing involves making transient and precise alterations in RNA molecules. Unlike DNA editing, which induces permanent genetic changes, RNA editing does not modify the genome itself. This reversibility offers a safer therapeutic option with reduced long-term risks, making it particularly suitable for treating genetic disorders.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
Statement-I: India, along with the United States and China, is not a party to the International Criminal Court (ICC)’s Rome Statute.
Statement-II: India has not joined the ICC due to concerns about the court’s jurisdiction and potential interference with domestic legal matters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
The International Criminal Court (ICC), established under the Rome Statute, is a permanent tribunal that prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
Statement-I is correct as India, the United States, China, and Russia are among the prominent nations that have not ratified the Rome Statute, hence are not ICC members.
Statement-II is also correct and provides the explanation for Statement-I. India’s decision to stay out of the ICC stems from concerns about sovereignty, jurisdiction, and the court’s perceived potential to interfere with domestic legal systems.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The International Criminal Court (ICC), established under the Rome Statute, is a permanent tribunal that prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
Statement-I is correct as India, the United States, China, and Russia are among the prominent nations that have not ratified the Rome Statute, hence are not ICC members.
Statement-II is also correct and provides the explanation for Statement-I. India’s decision to stay out of the ICC stems from concerns about sovereignty, jurisdiction, and the court’s perceived potential to interfere with domestic legal systems.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- RNA editing uses adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) enzymes to make permanent changes to the genome.
- RNA editing effects are reversible and fade over time.
- RNA editing carries a higher risk of immune reaction compared to DNA editing.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Only Statement 2 is correct.
About RNA Editing:
- Definition:RNA editing involves making precise changes to RNA molecules, which carry instructions from DNA to produce proteins. This process allows scientists to correct errors in RNA before they are translated into proteins.
- Mechanism:One method uses enzymes like adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) to convert adenosine to inosine, which mimics guanosine, restoring normal protein function.
- Guide RNA (gRNA):gRNA directs ADAR enzymes to specific mRNA regions to correct mutations linked to genetic disorders.
Difference Between RNA and DNA Editing:
- Permanency:DNA editing makes permanent changes to the genome; RNA editing makes temporary changes, reducing long-term risk.
- Safety:DNA editing uses proteins from bacteria, which may cause immune reactions; RNA editing utilizes ADAR enzymes already present in the human body, lowering immune risks.
- Flexibility:RNA editing allows effects to fade over time, enabling doctors to stop treatment if side effects arise.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Only Statement 2 is correct.
About RNA Editing:
- Definition:RNA editing involves making precise changes to RNA molecules, which carry instructions from DNA to produce proteins. This process allows scientists to correct errors in RNA before they are translated into proteins.
- Mechanism:One method uses enzymes like adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) to convert adenosine to inosine, which mimics guanosine, restoring normal protein function.
- Guide RNA (gRNA):gRNA directs ADAR enzymes to specific mRNA regions to correct mutations linked to genetic disorders.
Difference Between RNA and DNA Editing:
- Permanency:DNA editing makes permanent changes to the genome; RNA editing makes temporary changes, reducing long-term risk.
- Safety:DNA editing uses proteins from bacteria, which may cause immune reactions; RNA editing utilizes ADAR enzymes already present in the human body, lowering immune risks.
- Flexibility:RNA editing allows effects to fade over time, enabling doctors to stop treatment if side effects arise.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the benefits of peatlands:
- Peatlands store less carbon than the world’s forests due to their smaller area.
- Peatlands play a crucial role in regulating water supplies and purifying water.
- The waterlogged nature of peatlands makes them unsuitable for preserving archaeological sites.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: B
- Peatlands are one of the most efficient natural carbon sinks, storing more carbon than all the world’s forests combined, even though they occupy a smaller area, making statement 1 incorrect.
- Peatlands are also crucial for water regulation and purification, as they help maintain groundwater levels and filter pollutants, ensuring cleaner water for ecosystems and human use, making statement 2 correct.
Additionally, the waterlogged conditions in peatlands create anaerobic environments, which significantly slow decomposition processes. This unique feature allows peatlands to preserve archaeological and cultural artifacts exceptionally well, contrary to statement 3, which is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Peatlands are one of the most efficient natural carbon sinks, storing more carbon than all the world’s forests combined, even though they occupy a smaller area, making statement 1 incorrect.
- Peatlands are also crucial for water regulation and purification, as they help maintain groundwater levels and filter pollutants, ensuring cleaner water for ecosystems and human use, making statement 2 correct.
Additionally, the waterlogged conditions in peatlands create anaerobic environments, which significantly slow decomposition processes. This unique feature allows peatlands to preserve archaeological and cultural artifacts exceptionally well, contrary to statement 3, which is incorrect.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the applications of microplastics:
- Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology for cleaning surfaces.
- They are completely biodegradable.
- Synthetic textiles shed microplastic fibers during washing.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Microplastics have various applications and unintended consequences, making them a significant environmental concern.
- Statement 1 is correct: Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology, where tiny plastic particles are employed to clean surfaces, particularly in industrial and maintenance settings. However, this process can release microplastics into the environment if not carefully managed.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Microplastics are not biodegradable; they are made of persistent synthetic polymers that resist natural degradation. While some cosmetic products claim to be biodegradable, microplastics in these products remain pollutants that accumulate in ecosystems.
Statement 3 is correct: Synthetic textiles, such as polyester and nylon, shed microplastic fibers during washing. These fibers often end up in wastewater, ultimately polluting rivers, lakes, and oceans.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Microplastics have various applications and unintended consequences, making them a significant environmental concern.
- Statement 1 is correct: Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology, where tiny plastic particles are employed to clean surfaces, particularly in industrial and maintenance settings. However, this process can release microplastics into the environment if not carefully managed.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Microplastics are not biodegradable; they are made of persistent synthetic polymers that resist natural degradation. While some cosmetic products claim to be biodegradable, microplastics in these products remain pollutants that accumulate in ecosystems.
Statement 3 is correct: Synthetic textiles, such as polyester and nylon, shed microplastic fibers during washing. These fibers often end up in wastewater, ultimately polluting rivers, lakes, and oceans.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following anthropogenic activities is the largest contributor to rising methane (CH₄) levels in the atmosphere?
Correct
Solution: A
Agriculture, particularly livestock farming, is the largest contributor to methane emissions. Ruminant animals produce methane through enteric fermentation, and rice paddies release significant amounts due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded fields. Waste management and fossil fuel extraction also contribute but are not as significant as agriculture.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Agriculture, particularly livestock farming, is the largest contributor to methane emissions. Ruminant animals produce methane through enteric fermentation, and rice paddies release significant amounts due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded fields. Waste management and fossil fuel extraction also contribute but are not as significant as agriculture.
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