The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes the primary operational advantage of the Tunguska Air Defence Missile System (2K22M) over traditional single-armament systems?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Tunguska Air Defence Missile System (2K22M) is distinguished as a Soviet-origin, tracked, self-propelled anti-aircraft weapon system. Its primary innovation lies in its hybrid configuration, which integrates two distinct types of weaponry: 9M311 missiles for long-range engagement (8–10 km) and twin 30 mm autocannons for close-in defense. This dual-armament approach allows it to provide comprehensive protection to ground forces against a variety of threats, including attack helicopters, cruise missiles, and modern tactical drones.
- Unlike systems that rely solely on missiles—which may have a “dead zone” at very close ranges—or guns—which have limited reach—the Tunguska fills the critical gap in low-altitude air defense. This makes it highly effective for protecting infantry and armored regiments while they are on the move. The system also features a 360-degree radar and optical tracking backup, ensuring it can operate even under conditions of electronic warfare jamming.
- It is not a man-portable system, nor is it designed for high-altitude ballistic defense; rather, it is a mobile shield for tactical army columns. India’s procurement of this system from Russia’s JSC Rosoboronexport underscores its strategic value in defending against modern swarm drone threats and precision-guided munitions.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Tunguska Air Defence Missile System (2K22M) is distinguished as a Soviet-origin, tracked, self-propelled anti-aircraft weapon system. Its primary innovation lies in its hybrid configuration, which integrates two distinct types of weaponry: 9M311 missiles for long-range engagement (8–10 km) and twin 30 mm autocannons for close-in defense. This dual-armament approach allows it to provide comprehensive protection to ground forces against a variety of threats, including attack helicopters, cruise missiles, and modern tactical drones.
- Unlike systems that rely solely on missiles—which may have a “dead zone” at very close ranges—or guns—which have limited reach—the Tunguska fills the critical gap in low-altitude air defense. This makes it highly effective for protecting infantry and armored regiments while they are on the move. The system also features a 360-degree radar and optical tracking backup, ensuring it can operate even under conditions of electronic warfare jamming.
- It is not a man-portable system, nor is it designed for high-altitude ballistic defense; rather, it is a mobile shield for tactical army columns. India’s procurement of this system from Russia’s JSC Rosoboronexport underscores its strategic value in defending against modern swarm drone threats and precision-guided munitions.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, the Central Excise duty on petrol and diesel is typically a specific-rate tax rather than an ad valorem tax.
Statement-II: The Central Government adjusts excise duty to shield consumers and Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) from volatility in global crude prices.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement-I is correct because the Central Excise Duty levied by the Union Government on fuel is usually a fixed-rate tax (a specific Rupee amount per litre), unlike the State Value Added Tax (VAT), which is ad valorem (a percentage). This fixed nature means the tax revenue per litre remains constant for the center regardless of price fluctuations, unless the rate itself is changed.
- Statement-II is also correct; the government frequently slashes or increases this duty to manage the retail price. For instance, the recent reduction of ₹10 per litre was intended to protect consumers and Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) from rising global crude prices.
However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I. The reason the tax is “specific” (Statement-I) relates to administrative ease and revenue stability for the Union, whereas the “adjustment of the tax” (Statement-II) is a fiscal policy tool used for inflation management.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement-I is correct because the Central Excise Duty levied by the Union Government on fuel is usually a fixed-rate tax (a specific Rupee amount per litre), unlike the State Value Added Tax (VAT), which is ad valorem (a percentage). This fixed nature means the tax revenue per litre remains constant for the center regardless of price fluctuations, unless the rate itself is changed.
- Statement-II is also correct; the government frequently slashes or increases this duty to manage the retail price. For instance, the recent reduction of ₹10 per litre was intended to protect consumers and Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) from rising global crude prices.
However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I. The reason the tax is “specific” (Statement-I) relates to administrative ease and revenue stability for the Union, whereas the “adjustment of the tax” (Statement-II) is a fiscal policy tool used for inflation management.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the SRY gene and the International Olympic Committee’s (IOC) recent policy change:
- The SRY gene is a segment of DNA usually found on the Y chromosome that acts as a master switch for male physical development.
- The screening process uses a saliva sample or cheek swab to detect the presence of the gene.
- Athletes with Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAIS) are automatically disqualified if they test positive for the SRY gene.
- The policy applies to all levels of sports, including grassroots and community-led leisure activities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct: SRY stands for Sex-determining Region Y, a gene that triggers the development of testes and male levels of testosterone.
- Statement 2 is also correct: The screening involves a simple saliva sample or cheek swab, with results typically issued in one week.
- However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the policy includes exceptions for rare DSDs (Differences in Sex Development). Specifically, athletes with Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAIS)—where the body cannot process testosterone—may still be eligible for the female category even if they are SRY-positive.
- Statement 4 is incorrect because the IOC mandates this screening only for elite-level international athletes (such as those in the Olympics or World Championships) and explicitly states it does not apply to grassroots or leisure sports. The significance of this policy lies in the shift from self-identification to a biological/genetic model for gender classification.
- The IOC cites data showing a 10% to 100% performance advantage for male-developed athletes. This mandatory screening aims to protect the integrity of the female category by ensuring competitors do not have the physiological advantages associated with male puberty, such as increased bone density and explosive muscle power.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct: SRY stands for Sex-determining Region Y, a gene that triggers the development of testes and male levels of testosterone.
- Statement 2 is also correct: The screening involves a simple saliva sample or cheek swab, with results typically issued in one week.
- However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the policy includes exceptions for rare DSDs (Differences in Sex Development). Specifically, athletes with Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAIS)—where the body cannot process testosterone—may still be eligible for the female category even if they are SRY-positive.
- Statement 4 is incorrect because the IOC mandates this screening only for elite-level international athletes (such as those in the Olympics or World Championships) and explicitly states it does not apply to grassroots or leisure sports. The significance of this policy lies in the shift from self-identification to a biological/genetic model for gender classification.
- The IOC cites data showing a 10% to 100% performance advantage for male-developed athletes. This mandatory screening aims to protect the integrity of the female category by ensuring competitors do not have the physiological advantages associated with male puberty, such as increased bone density and explosive muscle power.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsMatch List-I (Mountain Pass/Location) with List-II (Strategic Connectivity):
List-I List-II A. Zojila Pass 1. Connects Leh to the Nubra Valley B. Fotu La 2. Connects Kashmir Valley to Ladakh C. Khardung La 3. Highest point on the Srinagar–Leh Highway Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
- Zojila Pass is a strategic high mountain pass in the Western Himalayas situated at an elevation of approximately 3,580 metres. It serves as the vital terrestrial link between the Kashmir Valley (Sonmarg) and the Ladakh region (Dras and Kargil). Therefore, A matches with 2.
- Fotu La is located on the Srinagar–Leh Highway and is significant for being the highest point on that specific route (at an elevation of 4,108 metres), surpassing Zojila in altitude. Thus, B matches with 3.
- Khardung La is traditionally known for connecting Leh to the Nubra and Shyok Valleys, making C match with 1. Zojila, often called the “mountain pass of blizzards,” is historically significant due to Operation Bison in 1948, where Indian forces used tanks at record-breaking altitudes to recapture it.
- Currently, the Zoji-la Tunnel (14 km) is under construction to provide all-weather connectivity, as the pass is usually closed for six months due to heavy snowfall and avalanches. The pass sits on the boundary between Ganderbal (J&K) and Kargil (Ladakh) districts and acts as a crucial supply route for forces in Siachen and along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Zojila Pass is a strategic high mountain pass in the Western Himalayas situated at an elevation of approximately 3,580 metres. It serves as the vital terrestrial link between the Kashmir Valley (Sonmarg) and the Ladakh region (Dras and Kargil). Therefore, A matches with 2.
- Fotu La is located on the Srinagar–Leh Highway and is significant for being the highest point on that specific route (at an elevation of 4,108 metres), surpassing Zojila in altitude. Thus, B matches with 3.
- Khardung La is traditionally known for connecting Leh to the Nubra and Shyok Valleys, making C match with 1. Zojila, often called the “mountain pass of blizzards,” is historically significant due to Operation Bison in 1948, where Indian forces used tanks at record-breaking altitudes to recapture it.
- Currently, the Zoji-la Tunnel (14 km) is under construction to provide all-weather connectivity, as the pass is usually closed for six months due to heavy snowfall and avalanches. The pass sits on the boundary between Ganderbal (J&K) and Kargil (Ladakh) districts and acts as a crucial supply route for forces in Siachen and along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsIn the context of fuel pricing in India, what does ‘Refinery Transfer Price’ (RTP) specifically include?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Refinery Transfer Price (RTP) is a critical intermediate step in fuel price derivation. It is the price that refineries (like those owned by Reliance or IOCL) charge to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs). This price is not just the cost of crude oil; it includes the actual cost of refining (processing crude into petrol or diesel) plus the logistics involved in getting the crude to the refinery, such as ocean freight, insurance, and port charges.
- Because India imports roughly 85% of its oil, the RTP is highly susceptible to global benchmarks and currency fluctuations. Once the OMCs receive the fuel at the RTP, they add their own operational margins and transportation costs before the Central Excise Duty and State VAT are applied.
- The Dealer Commission is added last. Understanding the RTP is essential for analyzing why domestic fuel prices might remain high even if global crude prices drop slightly, as the costs of refining and freight are also variable.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Refinery Transfer Price (RTP) is a critical intermediate step in fuel price derivation. It is the price that refineries (like those owned by Reliance or IOCL) charge to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs). This price is not just the cost of crude oil; it includes the actual cost of refining (processing crude into petrol or diesel) plus the logistics involved in getting the crude to the refinery, such as ocean freight, insurance, and port charges.
- Because India imports roughly 85% of its oil, the RTP is highly susceptible to global benchmarks and currency fluctuations. Once the OMCs receive the fuel at the RTP, they add their own operational margins and transportation costs before the Central Excise Duty and State VAT are applied.
- The Dealer Commission is added last. Understanding the RTP is essential for analyzing why domestic fuel prices might remain high even if global crude prices drop slightly, as the costs of refining and freight are also variable.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Khondab’ and ‘Ardakan’ facilities, recently in the news, are located in which country?
Correct
Solution: D
- The Khondab Heavy Water Complex and the Ardakan yellowcake plant are both critical components of Iran’s nuclear program. Khondab, located near Arak in Central Iran, houses a heavy water production plant and a research reactor capable of producing plutonium.
- Ardakan, located in the Yazd Province, is Iran’s only facility for processing uranium ore into yellowcake (U3O8). These sites were recently targeted by Israeli Air Force strikes in an escalation of regional tensions.
- The strikes targeted the upstream components of the nuclear fuel cycle, aiming to delay Iran’s ability to produce weapons-grade materials. This move was a shift from the usual “shadow war” of cyber-attacks to direct kinetic strikes. International bodies like the IAEA (represented by Rafael Grossi) have expressed concern over the safety of such attacks on nuclear-linked infrastructure. Despite the strikes, Iranian authorities reported no radioactive leaks. Mapping these locations is important for understanding the Middle East’s geopolitical dynamics and the risks of a wider conflict involving proxies like Hezbollah and the Houthis.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Khondab Heavy Water Complex and the Ardakan yellowcake plant are both critical components of Iran’s nuclear program. Khondab, located near Arak in Central Iran, houses a heavy water production plant and a research reactor capable of producing plutonium.
- Ardakan, located in the Yazd Province, is Iran’s only facility for processing uranium ore into yellowcake (U3O8). These sites were recently targeted by Israeli Air Force strikes in an escalation of regional tensions.
- The strikes targeted the upstream components of the nuclear fuel cycle, aiming to delay Iran’s ability to produce weapons-grade materials. This move was a shift from the usual “shadow war” of cyber-attacks to direct kinetic strikes. International bodies like the IAEA (represented by Rafael Grossi) have expressed concern over the safety of such attacks on nuclear-linked infrastructure. Despite the strikes, Iranian authorities reported no radioactive leaks. Mapping these locations is important for understanding the Middle East’s geopolitical dynamics and the risks of a wider conflict involving proxies like Hezbollah and the Houthis.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsRegarding the Chambal River, consider the following statements:
- It is an anterior-drainage river, meaning its course was established before the formation of the Yamuna and Ganges.
- The river is noted for its high pollution levels due to the intensive industrial activity in the Chambal Ravines.
- Its deep natural pools serve as critical refuge points for the critically endangered Gharial and the Ganges River Dolphin.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Chambal River is one of India’s most ecologically significant perennial rivers.
- Statement 1 is correct; geologically, it is an anterior-drainage river, signifying it predates the main Himalayan drainage systems it now joins. This ancient lineage contributes to its unique geomorphology.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Chambal is famous for being remarkably pollution-free. This is attributed to local folklore and myths that discouraged human and industrial encroachment for centuries. While the Chambal Ravines (Badland Topography) are a result of severe soil erosion, they have historically acted as a barrier to large-scale industrialization, preserving the water quality.
- Statement 3 is correct. The river’s hydrology includes deep natural pools that remain even during the lean summer months. These pools are vital for the survival of large aquatic mammals like the Ganges River Dolphin and reptiles like the Gharial. A large section is protected under the National Chambal Sanctuary.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Chambal River is one of India’s most ecologically significant perennial rivers.
- Statement 1 is correct; geologically, it is an anterior-drainage river, signifying it predates the main Himalayan drainage systems it now joins. This ancient lineage contributes to its unique geomorphology.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Chambal is famous for being remarkably pollution-free. This is attributed to local folklore and myths that discouraged human and industrial encroachment for centuries. While the Chambal Ravines (Badland Topography) are a result of severe soil erosion, they have historically acted as a barrier to large-scale industrialization, preserving the water quality.
- Statement 3 is correct. The river’s hydrology includes deep natural pools that remain even during the lean summer months. These pools are vital for the survival of large aquatic mammals like the Ganges River Dolphin and reptiles like the Gharial. A large section is protected under the National Chambal Sanctuary.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsIn the context of the randomization of EVMs and VVPATs in India, consider the following statements:
- Randomization is a software-driven process conducted to eliminate human bias.
- The serial numbers of the machines are kept strictly confidential from political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because the randomization process utilizes the EVM Management System (EMS) software to ensure that the allocation of machines to constituencies and polling stations is unpredictable and free from human intervention.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the process is designed for transparency, not secrecy. The serial numbers of the randomized machines are shared with representatives of recognized National and State political parties at every stage of the process to ensure institutional integrity and public confidence.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct because the randomization process utilizes the EVM Management System (EMS) software to ensure that the allocation of machines to constituencies and polling stations is unpredictable and free from human intervention.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the process is designed for transparency, not secrecy. The serial numbers of the randomized machines are shared with representatives of recognized National and State political parties at every stage of the process to ensure institutional integrity and public confidence.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT), which of the following statements are correct?
- It is registered under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, as an irrevocable trust.
- The day-to-day management of the assets is handled directly by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
- The listing of RIIT on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) allows retail investors to participate in infrastructure ownership.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. RIIT is constituted as an irrevocable trust under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, and is registered with SEBI. This legal structure ensures that the assets are held for the benefit of the unit holders and are protected from the liabilities of the sponsor.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While NHAI is the sponsor, the day-to-day management is handled by a specialized entity called Raajmarg Infra Investment Managers Private Limited (RIIMPL). In an InvIT structure, the “Investment Manager” is responsible for operational decisions, toll collection management, and optimizing the portfolio, ensuring a professional separation between the government body and the trust’s commercial operations.
- Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary significances of listing RIIT on the BSE is the democratization of infrastructure investment. Previously, large-scale assets like national highways were only accessible to institutional giants or sovereign wealth funds. Listing allows individual retail investors to buy units, effectively owning a piece of India’s highway infrastructure. This helps the NHAI unlock equity from completed roads (Asset Monetization) and reinvest those funds into greenfield projects or expressways, reducing the government’s reliance on high-interest bank loans or the union budget.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. RIIT is constituted as an irrevocable trust under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, and is registered with SEBI. This legal structure ensures that the assets are held for the benefit of the unit holders and are protected from the liabilities of the sponsor.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While NHAI is the sponsor, the day-to-day management is handled by a specialized entity called Raajmarg Infra Investment Managers Private Limited (RIIMPL). In an InvIT structure, the “Investment Manager” is responsible for operational decisions, toll collection management, and optimizing the portfolio, ensuring a professional separation between the government body and the trust’s commercial operations.
- Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary significances of listing RIIT on the BSE is the democratization of infrastructure investment. Previously, large-scale assets like national highways were only accessible to institutional giants or sovereign wealth funds. Listing allows individual retail investors to buy units, effectively owning a piece of India’s highway infrastructure. This helps the NHAI unlock equity from completed roads (Asset Monetization) and reinvest those funds into greenfield projects or expressways, reducing the government’s reliance on high-interest bank loans or the union budget.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) Phase-I consists of three locations: Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, and Padur.
- The 90-day net import reserve recommended by the IEA can only be met through government-owned SPRs.
- India is a full-time member of the International Energy Agency (IEA).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. India’s Phase-I SPR program consists of three underground rock cavern facilities: Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh), Mangaluru (Karnataka), and Padur (Karnataka), with a total capacity of 5.33 MMT.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The IEA recommendation that member nations maintain emergency oil stocks equivalent to 90 days of net imports does not dictate that the stocks must be solely in government-owned SPRs. They can be a combination of government-owned strategic stocks, stocks held by public sector refineries, and even stocks held by private oil companies (commercial stocks). In India’s case, while the SPRs cover about 9.5 days, the combined stocks with oil companies bring the total cover significantly higher.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. India is an Associate Member of the IEA, not a full-time member. Full membership requires meeting specific criteria, including the 90-day reserve requirement. However, India collaborates closely with the IEA as part of its broader Energy Security Strategy.
- Energy sovereignty is crucial for India, as it imports over 88% of its crude requirement. SPRs act as a “specialized insurance policy” to protect the economy from price shocks triggered by geopolitical wars or natural disasters.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. India’s Phase-I SPR program consists of three underground rock cavern facilities: Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh), Mangaluru (Karnataka), and Padur (Karnataka), with a total capacity of 5.33 MMT.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The IEA recommendation that member nations maintain emergency oil stocks equivalent to 90 days of net imports does not dictate that the stocks must be solely in government-owned SPRs. They can be a combination of government-owned strategic stocks, stocks held by public sector refineries, and even stocks held by private oil companies (commercial stocks). In India’s case, while the SPRs cover about 9.5 days, the combined stocks with oil companies bring the total cover significantly higher.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. India is an Associate Member of the IEA, not a full-time member. Full membership requires meeting specific criteria, including the 90-day reserve requirement. However, India collaborates closely with the IEA as part of its broader Energy Security Strategy.
- Energy sovereignty is crucial for India, as it imports over 88% of its crude requirement. SPRs act as a “specialized insurance policy” to protect the economy from price shocks triggered by geopolitical wars or natural disasters.
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