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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Messenger RNA (mRNA), consider the following statements:
- It is a single-stranded molecule that carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes.
- Unlike DNA, which contains thymine, mRNA contains uracil as one of its nitrogenous bases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: DNA is the master blueprint stored safely inside the cell nucleus. However, proteins are built in the ribosomes (the cell’s factories) located in the cytoplasm. mRNA acts as the messenger or a temporary copy that carries the genetic code from the DNA to the ribosomes so that protein synthesis can occur.
- Statement 2 is correct: While both DNA and RNA use Adenine (A), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C), they differ in their fourth base. DNA uses Thymine (T), whereas mRNA replaces it with Uracil (U). Additionally, mRNA contains a ribose sugar, while DNA contains deoxyribose
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: DNA is the master blueprint stored safely inside the cell nucleus. However, proteins are built in the ribosomes (the cell’s factories) located in the cytoplasm. mRNA acts as the messenger or a temporary copy that carries the genetic code from the DNA to the ribosomes so that protein synthesis can occur.
- Statement 2 is correct: While both DNA and RNA use Adenine (A), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C), they differ in their fourth base. DNA uses Thymine (T), whereas mRNA replaces it with Uracil (U). Additionally, mRNA contains a ribose sugar, while DNA contains deoxyribose
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- The scheme provides financial incentives along with design infrastructure support to domestic startups and MSMEs.
- The Design Linked Incentive Scheme is implemented by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme is a key pillar of the ISM. It is uniquely designed to move India up the value chain from just manufacturing to designing chips. It offers three types of support:
-
- Design Infrastructure Support: Access to EDA (Electronic Design Automation) tools and IP cores.
- Product Design Linked Incentive: Reimbursement of up to 50% of eligible expenditure.
- Deployment Linked Incentive: An incentive of 4% to 6% of net sales over five years.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The DLI scheme is not implemented by NITI Aayog. It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), which is a premier R&D organization under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme is a key pillar of the ISM. It is uniquely designed to move India up the value chain from just manufacturing to designing chips. It offers three types of support:
-
- Design Infrastructure Support: Access to EDA (Electronic Design Automation) tools and IP cores.
- Product Design Linked Incentive: Reimbursement of up to 50% of eligible expenditure.
- Deployment Linked Incentive: An incentive of 4% to 6% of net sales over five years.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The DLI scheme is not implemented by NITI Aayog. It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), which is a premier R&D organization under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
-
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) and their respective countries of origin:
UAV / Drone System Country of Origin 1. Bayraktar TB2 Turkey 2. Shahed-136 Russia 3. MQ-9B Predator United States 4. Heron TP Israel 5. Orlan-10 China How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Bayraktar TB2 — Turkey (Correct): Produced by Baykar Tech, this MALE (Medium-Altitude Long-Endurance) drone became a household name due to its effectiveness in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict and its early use by Ukraine.
- Shahed-136 — Russia (Incorrect): This is an Iranian loitering munition (suicide drone). While Russia has used them extensively in Ukraine (often rebranding them as Geran-2), their country of origin and design is Iran.
- MQ-9B Predator — United States (Correct): Manufactured by General Atomics, the MQ-9B (SkyGuardian/SeaGuardian) is a top-tier hunter-killer drone. India has been in the process of procuring 31 of these for its tri-services.
- Heron TP — Israel (Correct): Developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), the Heron is a mainstay of the Indian Armed Forces for long-range surveillance along the LAC and LoC.
- Orlan-10 — Russia (Incorrect): The Orlan-10 is a reconnaissance UAV developed by the Special Technology Center in Russia, not China. It is Russia’s most widely used tactical drone for artillery spotting.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Bayraktar TB2 — Turkey (Correct): Produced by Baykar Tech, this MALE (Medium-Altitude Long-Endurance) drone became a household name due to its effectiveness in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict and its early use by Ukraine.
- Shahed-136 — Russia (Incorrect): This is an Iranian loitering munition (suicide drone). While Russia has used them extensively in Ukraine (often rebranding them as Geran-2), their country of origin and design is Iran.
- MQ-9B Predator — United States (Correct): Manufactured by General Atomics, the MQ-9B (SkyGuardian/SeaGuardian) is a top-tier hunter-killer drone. India has been in the process of procuring 31 of these for its tri-services.
- Heron TP — Israel (Correct): Developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), the Heron is a mainstay of the Indian Armed Forces for long-range surveillance along the LAC and LoC.
- Orlan-10 — Russia (Incorrect): The Orlan-10 is a reconnaissance UAV developed by the Special Technology Center in Russia, not China. It is Russia’s most widely used tactical drone for artillery spotting.
-
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to computing hardware, which of the following statements best describes a Tensor Processing Unit (TPU)?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- (a) Incorrect: This describes a CPU (Central Processing Unit). CPUs are the brains of the computer, designed for general-purpose tasks and complex logic (serial processing).
- (b) Incorrect: This describes a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit). While GPUs are used for AI, they were originally designed for parallel processing in 3D rendering and gaming. They are more flexible than TPUs but less efficient for specific AI math.
- (c) Incorrect: This describes RAM (Random Access Memory) or Cache, which are volatile memory types used for data storage, not for specialized mathematical processing.
- (d) Correct: A TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) is an ASIC. Unlike a CPU or GPU which can perform many types of tasks, an ASIC is hardwired for one specific job. In the case of the TPU, it is optimized for the high-volume matrix mathematics (Tensors) required by neural networks.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- (a) Incorrect: This describes a CPU (Central Processing Unit). CPUs are the brains of the computer, designed for general-purpose tasks and complex logic (serial processing).
- (b) Incorrect: This describes a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit). While GPUs are used for AI, they were originally designed for parallel processing in 3D rendering and gaming. They are more flexible than TPUs but less efficient for specific AI math.
- (c) Incorrect: This describes RAM (Random Access Memory) or Cache, which are volatile memory types used for data storage, not for specialized mathematical processing.
- (d) Correct: A TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) is an ASIC. Unlike a CPU or GPU which can perform many types of tasks, an ASIC is hardwired for one specific job. In the case of the TPU, it is optimized for the high-volume matrix mathematics (Tensors) required by neural networks.
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the regulation of Genetically Modified (GM) crops in India, consider the following statements:
- The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body that allows for the commercial release of GM crops.
- The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
- Import of GM food products requires the approval of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is indeed the apex statutory body in India. According to the Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (1989), the GEAC is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from an environmental angle. It is the only body that can clear a GM crop for environmental release or commercial cultivation.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: This is the common error point. The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), not the Ministry of Science and Technology. While the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Science Ministry handles the research phase, the regulatory clearing happens under the Environment Ministry to assess ecological impact.
- Statement 3 is correct: Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, any food product that contains genetically modified organisms (GMOs) or is derived from them requires approval from the FSSAI before it can be imported or sold in the Indian market.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is indeed the apex statutory body in India. According to the Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (1989), the GEAC is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from an environmental angle. It is the only body that can clear a GM crop for environmental release or commercial cultivation.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: This is the common error point. The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), not the Ministry of Science and Technology. While the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Science Ministry handles the research phase, the regulatory clearing happens under the Environment Ministry to assess ecological impact.
- Statement 3 is correct: Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, any food product that contains genetically modified organisms (GMOs) or is derived from them requires approval from the FSSAI before it can be imported or sold in the Indian market.
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Geological Carbon Sequestration’, CO2 can be permanently stored in which of the following locations?
- Depleted oil and gas reservoirs.
- Unmineable coal seams.
- Deep saline aquifers (porous rock formations saturated with salt water).
- Basalt rock formations through the process of mineralization.
How many of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Depleted Oil and Gas Reservoirs (Correct): These are the most well-understood storage sites. Since these rock formations held oil and gas for millions of years, they are proven containers. Additionally, injecting CO2 here can help in Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR).
- Unmineable Coal Seams (Correct): CO2 can be injected into coal beds that are too deep or too thin to be mined. The CO2 binds to the surface of the coal, often displacing Coal Bed Methane (CBM), which can then be recovered as an energy source.
- Deep Saline Aquifers (Correct): These are layers of porous rock (like sandstone) saturated with undrinkable salt water, located deep underground. They have the largest potential capacity for CO2 storage globally. Over time, the CO2 dissolves in the brine or reacts with the rock to form minerals.
- Basalt Rock Formations (Correct): This is a newer, highly secure method. When CO2 is dissolved in water and injected into reactive basaltic rocks, it undergoes a chemical reaction (mineralization) to turn into solid carbonate minerals (like limestone) within a few years.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Depleted Oil and Gas Reservoirs (Correct): These are the most well-understood storage sites. Since these rock formations held oil and gas for millions of years, they are proven containers. Additionally, injecting CO2 here can help in Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR).
- Unmineable Coal Seams (Correct): CO2 can be injected into coal beds that are too deep or too thin to be mined. The CO2 binds to the surface of the coal, often displacing Coal Bed Methane (CBM), which can then be recovered as an energy source.
- Deep Saline Aquifers (Correct): These are layers of porous rock (like sandstone) saturated with undrinkable salt water, located deep underground. They have the largest potential capacity for CO2 storage globally. Over time, the CO2 dissolves in the brine or reacts with the rock to form minerals.
- Basalt Rock Formations (Correct): This is a newer, highly secure method. When CO2 is dissolved in water and injected into reactive basaltic rocks, it undergoes a chemical reaction (mineralization) to turn into solid carbonate minerals (like limestone) within a few years.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Graphene’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a three-dimensional allotrope of carbon consisting of a single layer of atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
- It is the thinnest known material but is significantly stronger than steel.
- It is an excellent conductor of heat and electricity and is nearly transparent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Graphene is a two-dimensional (2D) allotrope of carbon, not three-dimensional. It consists of a single layer of carbon atoms. When these layers are stacked on top of each other, they form Graphite (which is 3D and used in pencil lead).
- Statement 2 is correct: Graphene is only one atom thick, making it the thinnest material ever discovered. Despite its minimal thickness, its carbon-carbon bonds are so strong that it is approximately 200 times stronger than steel of the same weight.
- Statement 3 is correct: Graphene has very high electron mobility, making it an exceptional conductor of electricity and heat (surpassing copper). Because it is only one atom thick, it absorbs only about 3% of visible light, making it nearly transparent to the naked eye.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Graphene is a two-dimensional (2D) allotrope of carbon, not three-dimensional. It consists of a single layer of carbon atoms. When these layers are stacked on top of each other, they form Graphite (which is 3D and used in pencil lead).
- Statement 2 is correct: Graphene is only one atom thick, making it the thinnest material ever discovered. Despite its minimal thickness, its carbon-carbon bonds are so strong that it is approximately 200 times stronger than steel of the same weight.
- Statement 3 is correct: Graphene has very high electron mobility, making it an exceptional conductor of electricity and heat (surpassing copper). Because it is only one atom thick, it absorbs only about 3% of visible light, making it nearly transparent to the naked eye.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Artificial trans fats are extensively used in the food industry.
Reason (R): They are inexpensive and help improve the texture as well as the shelf life of fried and baked products.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Assertion (A) is true: Artificial trans fats (Industrial Trans Fatty Acids) are created through a process called partial hydrogenation, where hydrogen is added to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid. They have been a staple in the food industry for decades, found in everything from vanaspati ghee and margarine to biscuits, fried snacks, and ready-to-eat meals.
- Reason (R) is true and explains A: The primary reason the food industry adopted trans fats isn’t for health, but for utility and profit.
- Texture: They provide a desirable mouthfeel and crunch in baked goods.
- Shelf Life: They are much more stable than liquid oils, meaning products don’t go rancid as quickly.
- Cost: They are significantly cheaper than animal fats (like butter) or high-quality stable oils (like olive oil).
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Assertion (A) is true: Artificial trans fats (Industrial Trans Fatty Acids) are created through a process called partial hydrogenation, where hydrogen is added to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid. They have been a staple in the food industry for decades, found in everything from vanaspati ghee and margarine to biscuits, fried snacks, and ready-to-eat meals.
- Reason (R) is true and explains A: The primary reason the food industry adopted trans fats isn’t for health, but for utility and profit.
- Texture: They provide a desirable mouthfeel and crunch in baked goods.
- Shelf Life: They are much more stable than liquid oils, meaning products don’t go rancid as quickly.
- Cost: They are significantly cheaper than animal fats (like butter) or high-quality stable oils (like olive oil).
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsA person looking vertically down into a clear swimming pool observes that the bottom of the pool appears shallower than it actually is. This is due to:
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- When light rays from the bottom of the pool travel through the water (Denser Medium) and enter the air (Rarer Medium), they speed up and bend away from the normal.
- To a human observer, the brain assumes that light travels in a straight line. Therefore, the eye traces these bent rays backward to a point higher than their actual origin.
- This creates a Virtual Image of the pool floor, making the pool appear to be only about 3/4th of its actual depth.
Other options are incorrect:
(b) Total Internal Reflection (TIR): This occurs only when light hits the boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle, causing it to reflect back into the water. If TIR were happening, you wouldn’t see the bottom at all; the surface would look like a mirror.
(c) Diffraction: This is the bending of light around corners or through small openings. It is not responsible for the depth perception in a large body of water like a pool.
(d) Scattering: This is the redirection of light by small particles or molecules (like why the sky is blue). While scattering occurs in water, it affects the color and clarity of the pool, not its apparent depth.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- When light rays from the bottom of the pool travel through the water (Denser Medium) and enter the air (Rarer Medium), they speed up and bend away from the normal.
- To a human observer, the brain assumes that light travels in a straight line. Therefore, the eye traces these bent rays backward to a point higher than their actual origin.
- This creates a Virtual Image of the pool floor, making the pool appear to be only about 3/4th of its actual depth.
Other options are incorrect:
(b) Total Internal Reflection (TIR): This occurs only when light hits the boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle, causing it to reflect back into the water. If TIR were happening, you wouldn’t see the bottom at all; the surface would look like a mirror.
(c) Diffraction: This is the bending of light around corners or through small openings. It is not responsible for the depth perception in a large body of water like a pool.
(d) Scattering: This is the redirection of light by small particles or molecules (like why the sky is blue). While scattering occurs in water, it affects the color and clarity of the pool, not its apparent depth.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Neutrinos’, consider the following statements:
- They are subatomic particles that carry a negative electrical charge similar to electrons.
- They are the second most abundant particles in the universe, after photons (light particles).
- Neutrinos are produced naturally in the sun, through radioactive decay, and during supernova explosions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Neutrinos are electrically neutral subatomic particles. The name neutrino actually means little neutral one in Italian. Unlike electrons, which have a negative charge, neutrinos do not interact via electromagnetic forces. This is why they can pass through solid lead or the entire Earth without being stopped.
- Statement 2 is correct: Neutrinos are incredibly pervasive. They are indeed the second most abundant particles in the observable universe, surpassed only by photons (particles of light). At any given second, billions of neutrinos are passing through your body.
- Statement 3 is correct: Neutrinos are produced in high-energy environments. The Sun is the largest source for Earth (solar neutrinos produced during nuclear fusion). They are also created during Supernova explosions (dying stars) and through the natural radioactive decay of elements like Potassium inside the Earth.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Neutrinos are electrically neutral subatomic particles. The name neutrino actually means little neutral one in Italian. Unlike electrons, which have a negative charge, neutrinos do not interact via electromagnetic forces. This is why they can pass through solid lead or the entire Earth without being stopped.
- Statement 2 is correct: Neutrinos are incredibly pervasive. They are indeed the second most abundant particles in the observable universe, surpassed only by photons (particles of light). At any given second, billions of neutrinos are passing through your body.
- Statement 3 is correct: Neutrinos are produced in high-energy environments. The Sun is the largest source for Earth (solar neutrinos produced during nuclear fusion). They are also created during Supernova explosions (dying stars) and through the natural radioactive decay of elements like Potassium inside the Earth.
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsThe average age of a group of persons increases by 2 years when two persons aged 24 years and 28 years are replaced by two new persons. If the average age of the two new persons is 42 years, find the number of persons in the group?
Correct
Answer: (c) 16
Solution:
Let number of persons = nIncrease in average = 2 → Total increase = 2n
Sum of new persons = 2 × 42 = 84
Sum of replaced persons = 24 + 28 = 52Net increase = 84 − 52 = 32
So,
2n = 32 → n = 16Incorrect
Answer: (c) 16
Solution:
Let number of persons = nIncrease in average = 2 → Total increase = 2n
Sum of new persons = 2 × 42 = 84
Sum of replaced persons = 24 + 28 = 52Net increase = 84 − 52 = 32
So,
2n = 32 → n = 16 -
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsThere are three sections A, B, and C in a class. The average marks of Section A is 60, Section B is 70, and Section C is 80. The average marks of A and B together is 64, and the average marks of B and C together is 76. Find the average marks of all three sections together?
Correct
Answer: (c) 70
Solution:
From A and B:
60A + 70B = 64(A + B)
⇒ 60A + 70B = 64A + 64B
⇒ 6B = 4A → A : B = 3 : 2From B and C:
70B + 80C = 76(B + C)
⇒ 70B + 80C = 76B + 76C
⇒ 4C = 6B → B : C = 2 : 3So,
From A:B = 3:2 and B:C = 2:3 → combine → A:B:C = 3:2:3
Final average =
(60×3 + 70×2 + 80×3) ÷ (3+2+3)
= (180 + 140 + 240) ÷ 8
= 560 ÷ 8 = 70Incorrect
Answer: (c) 70
Solution:
From A and B:
60A + 70B = 64(A + B)
⇒ 60A + 70B = 64A + 64B
⇒ 6B = 4A → A : B = 3 : 2From B and C:
70B + 80C = 76(B + C)
⇒ 70B + 80C = 76B + 76C
⇒ 4C = 6B → B : C = 2 : 3So,
From A:B = 3:2 and B:C = 2:3 → combine → A:B:C = 3:2:3
Final average =
(60×3 + 70×2 + 80×3) ÷ (3+2+3)
= (180 + 140 + 240) ÷ 8
= 560 ÷ 8 = 70 -
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsIn a 50-over match, a team has to score 300 runs to win. After 25 overs, the team has scored 150 runs. What should be the required run rate in the remaining overs?
Correct
Answer: (b) 6
Solution:
Step 1: Runs scored so far
= 150
Step 2: Remaining runs
= 300 − 150 = 150
Step 3: Remaining overs
= 50 − 25 = 25
Step 4: Required run rate
= Remaining runs ÷ Remaining overs
= 150 ÷ 25
= 6Incorrect
Answer: (b) 6
Solution:
Step 1: Runs scored so far
= 150
Step 2: Remaining runs
= 300 − 150 = 150
Step 3: Remaining overs
= 50 − 25 = 25
Step 4: Required run rate
= Remaining runs ÷ Remaining overs
= 150 ÷ 25
= 6 -
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsThe average temperature for Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday was 35°C. The average for Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday was 38°C. If the temperature on Thursday was 40°C, what was the temperature on Monday?
Correct
Answer: (a) 31
Solution:
Let temperatures be:
Monday = M, Tuesday = T, Wednesday = W, Thursday = 40°CStep 1: From first average
(M + T + W) / 3 = 35
So, M + T + W = 105Step 2: From second average
(T + W + 40) / 3 = 38
So, T + W + 40 = 114
T + W = 74Step 3: Substitute
M + 74 = 105
M = 31Incorrect
Answer: (a) 31
Solution:
Let temperatures be:
Monday = M, Tuesday = T, Wednesday = W, Thursday = 40°CStep 1: From first average
(M + T + W) / 3 = 35
So, M + T + W = 105Step 2: From second average
(T + W + 40) / 3 = 38
So, T + W + 40 = 114
T + W = 74Step 3: Substitute
M + 74 = 105
M = 31 -
Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsPassage
The idea that technology is a neutral tool is increasingly under fire. Digital platforms are not just passive conduits for information; they are designed with specific psychological triggers intended to maximize “engagement”—a euphemism for time spent on the app. This design philosophy, often termed the “attention economy,” treats human focus as a finite resource to be mined. Consequently, the erosion of deep work and the rise of fragmented thinking are not accidental side effects but structural outcomes of our current digital ecosystem. To reclaim cognitive autonomy, we must look beyond individual willpower and interrogate the algorithmic architectures that govern our digital lives.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference from the passage?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Solution:
The passage argues that modern digital technology is not neutral but deliberately designed to capture and hold user attention. Platforms use psychological techniques to maximize engagement, forming what is called the “attention economy,” where human focus becomes a resource to exploit. As a result, reduced concentration and fragmented thinking are not accidental but built into the system itself. The author emphasizes that this problem cannot be solved by individual willpower alone. Instead, it requires a deeper examination of how digital platforms are structured and how their algorithms influence human behavior and cognition.Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Solution:
The passage argues that modern digital technology is not neutral but deliberately designed to capture and hold user attention. Platforms use psychological techniques to maximize engagement, forming what is called the “attention economy,” where human focus becomes a resource to exploit. As a result, reduced concentration and fragmented thinking are not accidental but built into the system itself. The author emphasizes that this problem cannot be solved by individual willpower alone. Instead, it requires a deeper examination of how digital platforms are structured and how their algorithms influence human behavior and cognition.
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