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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following technologies are primarily associated with the “Zero Trust Architecture” (ZTA) in cybersecurity?
- Micro-segmentation of network resources
- Multi-factor Authentication (MFA)
- Perimeter-based Firewalls
- Least Privilege Access (LPA)
- Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
Micro-segmentation is a core pillar of Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA). It divides networks into granular zones to prevent lateral movement of threats. Access is restricted at a fine level, ensuring that compromise in one segment does not propagate across the system.Statement II: — Correct
ZTA operates on the principle of “never trust, always verify.” MFA strengthens identity verification by requiring multiple credentials, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access even if passwords are compromised.Statement III: — Incorrect
Traditional perimeter-based security assumes trust within the network once access is granted. ZTA explicitly rejects this model and instead enforces continuous verification irrespective of network location. Hence, reliance on perimeter firewalls alone is contrary to ZTA principles.Statement IV: — Correct
Least Privilege Access is fundamental to ZTA. It ensures that users and systems are granted only the minimum access necessary, thereby minimizing attack surfaces and limiting potential damage from breaches.Statement V: — Correct
SDP is an implementation model aligned with ZTA. It dynamically creates secure, identity-based access to resources, effectively hiding infrastructure from unauthorized users and enforcing strict access controls.Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
Micro-segmentation is a core pillar of Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA). It divides networks into granular zones to prevent lateral movement of threats. Access is restricted at a fine level, ensuring that compromise in one segment does not propagate across the system.Statement II: — Correct
ZTA operates on the principle of “never trust, always verify.” MFA strengthens identity verification by requiring multiple credentials, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access even if passwords are compromised.Statement III: — Incorrect
Traditional perimeter-based security assumes trust within the network once access is granted. ZTA explicitly rejects this model and instead enforces continuous verification irrespective of network location. Hence, reliance on perimeter firewalls alone is contrary to ZTA principles.Statement IV: — Correct
Least Privilege Access is fundamental to ZTA. It ensures that users and systems are granted only the minimum access necessary, thereby minimizing attack surfaces and limiting potential damage from breaches.Statement V: — Correct
SDP is an implementation model aligned with ZTA. It dynamically creates secure, identity-based access to resources, effectively hiding infrastructure from unauthorized users and enforcing strict access controls. -
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to 6G technology consider the following statements:
- It aims to utilize the Terahertz (THz) frequency band to achieve peak data rates of up to 1 Terabit per second.
- It integrates “Integrated Sensing and Communication” (ISAC) to allow the network to act as a radar.
- It will strictly eliminate the use of Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) due to latency constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
6G is envisioned to operate in higher frequency bands, including the Terahertz (THz) spectrum (≈0.1–10 THz). These bands offer extremely large bandwidths, enabling ultra-high data rates, theoretically reaching up to 1 Tbps under ideal conditions.Statement II— Correct
A key innovation in 6G is ISAC, where communication signals are also used for sensing purposes (e.g., object detection, environmental mapping). This effectively allows the network infrastructure to function similarly to radar systems, supporting applications like autonomous systems and smart environments.Statement III: — Incorrect
While 6G research explores alternatives to OFDM (due to issues like high peak-to-average power ratio and latency concerns), there is no definitive consensus that OFDM will be completely eliminated. Instead, evolved or hybrid waveform techniques may coexist with or improve upon OFDM.Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
6G is envisioned to operate in higher frequency bands, including the Terahertz (THz) spectrum (≈0.1–10 THz). These bands offer extremely large bandwidths, enabling ultra-high data rates, theoretically reaching up to 1 Tbps under ideal conditions.Statement II— Correct
A key innovation in 6G is ISAC, where communication signals are also used for sensing purposes (e.g., object detection, environmental mapping). This effectively allows the network infrastructure to function similarly to radar systems, supporting applications like autonomous systems and smart environments.Statement III: — Incorrect
While 6G research explores alternatives to OFDM (due to issues like high peak-to-average power ratio and latency concerns), there is no definitive consensus that OFDM will be completely eliminated. Instead, evolved or hybrid waveform techniques may coexist with or improve upon OFDM. -
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: Edge computing reduces latency by processing data closer to the source.
Statement II: Cloud computing inherently eliminates the need for edge computing in distributed systems.
Which one of the following is correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I: Edge computing reduces latency by processing data closer to the source — Correct
Edge computing brings computation and data storage closer to the data-generating source (e.g., IoT devices, sensors). This minimizes the distance data must travel, thereby reducing latency, improving real-time responsiveness, and decreasing bandwidth usage.Statement II: Incorrect
Cloud computing centralizes processing in remote data centers, which can introduce latency due to data transmission over networks. In fact, edge computing has emerged precisely to complement cloud computing, not replace it. Modern architectures often use a hybrid cloud–edge continuum to balance scalability (cloud) and low latency (edge).Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I: Edge computing reduces latency by processing data closer to the source — Correct
Edge computing brings computation and data storage closer to the data-generating source (e.g., IoT devices, sensors). This minimizes the distance data must travel, thereby reducing latency, improving real-time responsiveness, and decreasing bandwidth usage.Statement II: Incorrect
Cloud computing centralizes processing in remote data centers, which can introduce latency due to data transmission over networks. In fact, edge computing has emerged precisely to complement cloud computing, not replace it. Modern architectures often use a hybrid cloud–edge continuum to balance scalability (cloud) and low latency (edge). -
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: The energy consumption of Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT) systems varies depending on the consensus mechanism employed.
Statement II: Public blockchains using Proof-of-Work (PoW) require substantial computational resources for transaction validation.
Statement III: Alternative consensus mechanisms such as Proof-of-Stake (PoS) significantly reduce computational requirements compared to PoW.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
This statement correctly captures the central feature of DLT systems: their energy profile is not uniform. Different DLT networks rely on different consensus mechanisms to validate transactions and maintain trust across the network. Since these mechanisms differ in their computational requirements, the resulting energy consumption also differs. Therefore, DLT cannot be described as either inherently energy-intensive or inherently energy-efficient in all cases. Its energy use depends significantly on the method through which consensus is achieved.
Statement II: — Correct
This statement is correct because Proof-of-Work requires participating nodes, commonly called miners, to solve complex cryptographic puzzles in order to validate transactions and add new blocks. This process involves repeated trial-and-error computations and therefore demands considerable processing power and electricity. As a result, PoW-based public blockchains are often associated with high energy consumption.
Statement III: — Correct
This statement is also correct. In Proof-of-Stake, validators are selected on the basis of their stake in the network rather than through energy-intensive competitive computation. Since the process does not depend on solving cryptographic puzzles at large scale, it drastically lowers computational overhead and electricity consumption relative to PoW systems.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
This statement correctly captures the central feature of DLT systems: their energy profile is not uniform. Different DLT networks rely on different consensus mechanisms to validate transactions and maintain trust across the network. Since these mechanisms differ in their computational requirements, the resulting energy consumption also differs. Therefore, DLT cannot be described as either inherently energy-intensive or inherently energy-efficient in all cases. Its energy use depends significantly on the method through which consensus is achieved.
Statement II: — Correct
This statement is correct because Proof-of-Work requires participating nodes, commonly called miners, to solve complex cryptographic puzzles in order to validate transactions and add new blocks. This process involves repeated trial-and-error computations and therefore demands considerable processing power and electricity. As a result, PoW-based public blockchains are often associated with high energy consumption.
Statement III: — Correct
This statement is also correct. In Proof-of-Stake, validators are selected on the basis of their stake in the network rather than through energy-intensive competitive computation. Since the process does not depend on solving cryptographic puzzles at large scale, it drastically lowers computational overhead and electricity consumption relative to PoW systems.
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsA computational system is capable of autonomously learning new tasks without retraining, transfers knowledge across domains, and demonstrates reasoning comparable to human cognition across diverse environments.
What does the above description best represent?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The description highlights cross-domain generalization, autonomous learning, and human-like reasoning, which are defining characteristics of AGI. Narrow AI systems are task-specific and lack such transferability. Expert systems are rule-based and static. Hence, the system described aligns with AGI.(a): Artificial Narrow Intelligence — Incorrect
Narrow AI is designed for specific tasks (e.g., image recognition, language translation) and lacks the ability to generalize knowledge across domains or independently acquire new skills beyond its training.(b): Machine Learning System — Incorrect
While machine learning enables systems to learn from data, most ML models are still task-specific and require retraining or fine-tuning for new tasks. They do not inherently possess generalized reasoning capabilities.(c): Expert System — Incorrect
Expert systems are rule-based systems that rely on predefined knowledge and logic. They lack adaptability, learning capability, and general intelligence.(d): Artificial General Intelligence — Correct
AGI refers to a system capable of performing any intellectual task that a human can, including reasoning, learning, and adapting across domains without task-specific reprogramming.Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The description highlights cross-domain generalization, autonomous learning, and human-like reasoning, which are defining characteristics of AGI. Narrow AI systems are task-specific and lack such transferability. Expert systems are rule-based and static. Hence, the system described aligns with AGI.(a): Artificial Narrow Intelligence — Incorrect
Narrow AI is designed for specific tasks (e.g., image recognition, language translation) and lacks the ability to generalize knowledge across domains or independently acquire new skills beyond its training.(b): Machine Learning System — Incorrect
While machine learning enables systems to learn from data, most ML models are still task-specific and require retraining or fine-tuning for new tasks. They do not inherently possess generalized reasoning capabilities.(c): Expert System — Incorrect
Expert systems are rule-based systems that rely on predefined knowledge and logic. They lack adaptability, learning capability, and general intelligence.(d): Artificial General Intelligence — Correct
AGI refers to a system capable of performing any intellectual task that a human can, including reasoning, learning, and adapting across domains without task-specific reprogramming. -
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs):
- They can be functionalized with specific antibodies to act as targeted drug delivery vehicles for tumor cells.
- Their high surface-area-to-volume ratio makes them ideal for use as artificial blood capillaries without any risk of coagulation.
- They are susceptible to biodegradation by certain oxidative enzymes and microbial action.
- They exhibit a “Direct Bandgap” property, making them superior to silicon for all types of optoelectronic applications.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs) can be surface-functionalized with biomolecules such as antibodies, peptides, or ligands. This enables targeted drug delivery, especially in cancer therapy, where CNTs can selectively bind to tumor cells and deliver therapeutic agents with higher precision.Statement II: — Incorrect
While CNTs do have a high surface-area-to-volume ratio, their direct biomedical use in blood-contact applications is limited. CNTs may induce toxicity, inflammation, and coagulation responses. Hence, claiming “without any risk of coagulation” is scientifically incorrect and an overgeneralisation.Statement III: — Correct
Research has shown that CNTs can undergo biodegradation, particularly through oxidative enzymes such as peroxidases and certain microbial processes. This challenges the earlier notion that CNTs are completely non-biodegradable.Statement IV: — Incorrect
CNTs may exhibit direct or indirect bandgap properties depending on their chirality and structure. However, they are not universally superior to silicon for all optoelectronic applications. The statement is incorrect due to the absolute claim “for all types.”Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs) can be surface-functionalized with biomolecules such as antibodies, peptides, or ligands. This enables targeted drug delivery, especially in cancer therapy, where CNTs can selectively bind to tumor cells and deliver therapeutic agents with higher precision.Statement II: — Incorrect
While CNTs do have a high surface-area-to-volume ratio, their direct biomedical use in blood-contact applications is limited. CNTs may induce toxicity, inflammation, and coagulation responses. Hence, claiming “without any risk of coagulation” is scientifically incorrect and an overgeneralisation.Statement III: — Correct
Research has shown that CNTs can undergo biodegradation, particularly through oxidative enzymes such as peroxidases and certain microbial processes. This challenges the earlier notion that CNTs are completely non-biodegradable.Statement IV: — Incorrect
CNTs may exhibit direct or indirect bandgap properties depending on their chirality and structure. However, they are not universally superior to silicon for all optoelectronic applications. The statement is incorrect due to the absolute claim “for all types.” -
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following conditions are classified as “Neglected Tropical Diseases” (NTDs) by the World Health Organization (WHO)?
- Lymphatic Filariasis
- Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
- Tuberculosis
- Trachoma
- Dengue and Chikungunya
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
Lymphatic Filariasis is a well-recognized Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) targeted by global elimination programmes of the World Health Organization.Statement II: — Correct
Kala-azar is a major NTD, particularly prevalent in parts of South Asia, including India. It is included in WHO’s priority list due to its high disease burden and socio-economic impact.Statement III: — Incorrect
Although Tuberculosis is a major global health concern, it is not classified as an NTD by WHO. It is addressed under separate global programmes like the End TB Strategy.Statement IV: — Correct
Trachoma, a leading infectious cause of blindness, is classified as an NTD and is targeted under WHO’s SAFE strategy (Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, Environmental improvement).Statement V: — Correct
WHO includes vector-borne viral diseases like Dengue and Chikungunya under the broader NTD framework due to their impact on tropical and subtropical populations and their association with neglected public health systems.Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I: — Correct
Lymphatic Filariasis is a well-recognized Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) targeted by global elimination programmes of the World Health Organization.Statement II: — Correct
Kala-azar is a major NTD, particularly prevalent in parts of South Asia, including India. It is included in WHO’s priority list due to its high disease burden and socio-economic impact.Statement III: — Incorrect
Although Tuberculosis is a major global health concern, it is not classified as an NTD by WHO. It is addressed under separate global programmes like the End TB Strategy.Statement IV: — Correct
Trachoma, a leading infectious cause of blindness, is classified as an NTD and is targeted under WHO’s SAFE strategy (Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, Environmental improvement).Statement V: — Correct
WHO includes vector-borne viral diseases like Dengue and Chikungunya under the broader NTD framework due to their impact on tropical and subtropical populations and their association with neglected public health systems. -
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following steps involved in CAR-T Cell Therapy:
I. T-cells are harvested from the patient’s own blood.
II. The T-cells are genetically engineered to express Chimeric Antigen Receptors (CARs).
III. The modified cells are multiplied in a laboratory.
IV. The cells are infused back into the patient to target specific proteins on cancer cells.How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation
Statement I is correct because the therapy begins with the extraction of T-cells from the patient’s own blood through a process known as leukapheresis. This ensures that the therapy is autologous and minimizes immune rejection.
Statement II is correct as the harvested T-cells are genetically engineered to express Chimeric Antigen Receptors (CARs). This modification enables the T-cells to specifically recognize antigens present on cancer cells, such as CD19 in certain blood cancers.
Statement III is correct because the genetically modified T-cells are then cultured and multiplied in a laboratory setting to achieve sufficient numbers required for effective treatment. This step is essential to enhance the therapeutic impact.
Statement IV is also correct since the expanded CAR-T cells are infused back into the patient’s body, where they actively identify and destroy cancer cells expressing the target antigen.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation
Statement I is correct because the therapy begins with the extraction of T-cells from the patient’s own blood through a process known as leukapheresis. This ensures that the therapy is autologous and minimizes immune rejection.
Statement II is correct as the harvested T-cells are genetically engineered to express Chimeric Antigen Receptors (CARs). This modification enables the T-cells to specifically recognize antigens present on cancer cells, such as CD19 in certain blood cancers.
Statement III is correct because the genetically modified T-cells are then cultured and multiplied in a laboratory setting to achieve sufficient numbers required for effective treatment. This step is essential to enhance the therapeutic impact.
Statement IV is also correct since the expanded CAR-T cells are infused back into the patient’s body, where they actively identify and destroy cancer cells expressing the target antigen.
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’:
I. It is a flagship program launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
II. It aims to deploy proven frontier technologies in selected districts to improve governance outcomes.
III. It utilizes a ‘Frontier Tech Repository’ to identify and fast-track technology use cases.How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect because the Frontier 50 Initiative is not a flagship programme of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It has been launched by NITI Aayog under its frontier technology framework.
Statement II is correct as the initiative aims to deploy proven frontier technologies in selected districts, particularly Aspirational Districts and Blocks, to enhance governance outcomes and improve service delivery.
Statement III is correct because the initiative makes use of a Frontier Tech Repository, which serves as a curated pool of technology solutions. This enables identification, selection, and accelerated deployment of suitable use cases across sectors.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect because the Frontier 50 Initiative is not a flagship programme of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It has been launched by NITI Aayog under its frontier technology framework.
Statement II is correct as the initiative aims to deploy proven frontier technologies in selected districts, particularly Aspirational Districts and Blocks, to enhance governance outcomes and improve service delivery.
Statement III is correct because the initiative makes use of a Frontier Tech Repository, which serves as a curated pool of technology solutions. This enables identification, selection, and accelerated deployment of suitable use cases across sectors.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Isobutanol in the context of India’s biofuel policy:
I. It is a four-carbon alcohol with a higher energy density and higher calorific value compared to ethanol.
II. Unlike ethanol, it can be blended more uniformly with diesel without the mandatory requirement of extra additives for miscibility.
III. It is produced through the fermentation of natural sugars using genetically engineered microbes.
IV. It has a lower flash point than ethanol, making it safer for transport and storage due to reduced volatility.How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Isobutanol is a four-carbon alcohol (C₄H₁₀O) and, owing to its longer carbon chain compared to ethanol, it has a higher energy density and calorific value, making it a more efficient fuel.
Statement II is correct. Ethanol has poor miscibility with diesel due to its polar nature and tendency to absorb water, often requiring additives to stabilize blends. Isobutanol, being relatively less polar and more hydrophobic, blends more uniformly with diesel without mandatory additives.
Statement III is correct. Bio-isobutanol is produced through the fermentation of sugars using genetically engineered microorganisms, where metabolic pathways are modified to enhance isobutanol yield.
Statement IV is incorrect. Isobutanol actually has a higher flash point than ethanol, which makes it less volatile and safer for storage and transport. The statement incorrectly claims that it has a lower flash point while also linking it to reduced volatility, which is conceptually inconsistent.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Isobutanol is a four-carbon alcohol (C₄H₁₀O) and, owing to its longer carbon chain compared to ethanol, it has a higher energy density and calorific value, making it a more efficient fuel.
Statement II is correct. Ethanol has poor miscibility with diesel due to its polar nature and tendency to absorb water, often requiring additives to stabilize blends. Isobutanol, being relatively less polar and more hydrophobic, blends more uniformly with diesel without mandatory additives.
Statement III is correct. Bio-isobutanol is produced through the fermentation of sugars using genetically engineered microorganisms, where metabolic pathways are modified to enhance isobutanol yield.
Statement IV is incorrect. Isobutanol actually has a higher flash point than ethanol, which makes it less volatile and safer for storage and transport. The statement incorrectly claims that it has a lower flash point while also linking it to reduced volatility, which is conceptually inconsistent.
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsThe average marks of 30 students is 52. The average of passed students is 60 and that of failed students is 40. If the pass mark is 50, how many students failed?
Correct
Answer: (b) 12
Solution:
Total marks = 30 × 52 = 1560
Let failed = x → passed = (30 − x)
Total marks:
= 40x + 60(30 − x)⇒ 40x + 1800 − 60x = 1560
⇒ 1800 − 20x = 1560
⇒ 20x = 240
⇒ x = 12Incorrect
Answer: (b) 12
Solution:
Total marks = 30 × 52 = 1560
Let failed = x → passed = (30 − x)
Total marks:
= 40x + 60(30 − x)⇒ 40x + 1800 − 60x = 1560
⇒ 1800 − 20x = 1560
⇒ 20x = 240
⇒ x = 12 -
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsThe average age of 20 employees is 30 years. Two employees aged 40 and 50 leave, and three new employees join whose average age is 20. What is the new average age?
Correct
Answer: (a) 27
Solution:
Initial total = 20 × 30 = 600
Remove 40 & 50 → subtract 90
New total = 600 − 90 = 510Add 3 employees → 3 × 20 = 60
Final total = 510 + 60 = 570New number = 21
New average = 570 / 21 ≈ 27.14 ≈ 27
Incorrect
Answer: (a) 27
Solution:
Initial total = 20 × 30 = 600
Remove 40 & 50 → subtract 90
New total = 600 − 90 = 510Add 3 employees → 3 × 20 = 60
Final total = 510 + 60 = 570New number = 21
New average = 570 / 21 ≈ 27.14 ≈ 27
-
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsThe average of 10 numbers is 25. If each number is first increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, what is the new average?
Correct
Answer: (b) 24
Solution:
Step 1: Core Concept
If all numbers change by the same percentage, the average also changes in the same way.
So instead of working with all 10 numbers, just apply changes to the average (25).
Step 2: Apply Changes One by One
- Increase by 20% → multiply by 1.2
- Then decrease by 20% → multiply by 0.8
Step 3: Combine the Effect
Net multiplier = 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96
So final value = 96% of original
Step 4: Apply to Average
New average = 25 × 0.96 = 24
Incorrect
Answer: (b) 24
Solution:
Step 1: Core Concept
If all numbers change by the same percentage, the average also changes in the same way.
So instead of working with all 10 numbers, just apply changes to the average (25).
Step 2: Apply Changes One by One
- Increase by 20% → multiply by 1.2
- Then decrease by 20% → multiply by 0.8
Step 3: Combine the Effect
Net multiplier = 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96
So final value = 96% of original
Step 4: Apply to Average
New average = 25 × 0.96 = 24
-
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsGroup A has 15 members with average age 20. Group B has 25 members with average age 30. If 5 members from Group B (average age 40) join Group A, what is the new average age of Group A?
Correct
Answer: (a) 25
Solution:
Group A total = 15 × 20 = 300
5 members from B → 5 × 40 = 200New total = 300 + 200 = 500
New number = 20New average = 500 / 20 = 25
Incorrect
Answer: (a) 25
Solution:
Group A total = 15 × 20 = 300
5 members from B → 5 × 40 = 200New total = 300 + 200 = 500
New number = 20New average = 500 / 20 = 25
-
Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsPassage
The rapid expansion of digital technologies has transformed governance by enhancing transparency, efficiency, and citizen participation. However, this transformation is not without its challenges. Digital systems often rely on large-scale data collection, raising concerns about privacy and surveillance. Furthermore, unequal access to technology can deepen existing socio-economic divides, excluding marginalized communities from the benefits of digital governance. Thus, while digitalization offers significant opportunities, it must be accompanied by robust safeguards and inclusive policies to ensure equitable outcomes.
Which of the following best captures the central idea of the passage?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Solution:
The passage highlights that digital governance, while transformative, is not inherently neutral or universally beneficial. It improves transparency, efficiency, and citizen participation, but also raises serious concerns regarding privacy, surveillance, and unequal access. The digital divide may exclude marginalized groups, thereby reinforcing existing socio-economic inequalities. Hence, the central idea is that digital technologies offer significant advantages but must be implemented with caution. Effective governance requires robust data protection frameworks, ethical use of technology, and inclusive policies to ensure equitable access. Therefore, digital governance should be pursued with a balanced approach that maximizes benefits while addressing risks and ensuring fairness.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Solution:
The passage highlights that digital governance, while transformative, is not inherently neutral or universally beneficial. It improves transparency, efficiency, and citizen participation, but also raises serious concerns regarding privacy, surveillance, and unequal access. The digital divide may exclude marginalized groups, thereby reinforcing existing socio-economic inequalities. Hence, the central idea is that digital technologies offer significant advantages but must be implemented with caution. Effective governance requires robust data protection frameworks, ethical use of technology, and inclusive policies to ensure equitable access. Therefore, digital governance should be pursued with a balanced approach that maximizes benefits while addressing risks and ensuring fairness.
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