The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Best of luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following characteristics makes hypersonic missiles difficult to intercept?
Correct
Solution: A
Hypersonic missiles are exceptionally difficult to intercept due to their combination of mid-flight maneuverability and extremely high speeds (exceeding Mach 5). Unlike traditional ballistic missiles, which follow a predictable trajectory, hypersonic missiles can alter their path mid-flight, making it nearly impossible for missile defense systems to predict their exact course. This capability enables them to evade radar tracking and intercept attempts.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Hypersonic missiles are exceptionally difficult to intercept due to their combination of mid-flight maneuverability and extremely high speeds (exceeding Mach 5). Unlike traditional ballistic missiles, which follow a predictable trajectory, hypersonic missiles can alter their path mid-flight, making it nearly impossible for missile defense systems to predict their exact course. This capability enables them to evade radar tracking and intercept attempts.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the characteristics of the Oriental Pied Hornbill:
- It is the largest hornbill species found in Asia.
- It is highly adaptable and widespread across its range.
- It is known as a ‘forest engineer’ due to its role in seed dispersal.
- It primarily inhabits subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size.
Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes.
Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation.
Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size.
Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes.
Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation.
Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers of the Union and State governments:
- The Union government can borrow funds without any restriction on the source of borrowing.
- The State government can borrow within the territory of India but needs prior consent from the Centre if it owes outstanding loans to the Union.
- The borrowing powers of both the Union and States are subject to laws enacted by their respective legislatures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers.
Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness.
Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers.
Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness.
Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the procedure for notification of tiger reserves in India:
- Only the NTCA can notify a tiger reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- The core zone of a tiger reserve allows sustainable human habitation and activities.
- The state government submits the proposal to the NTCA for evaluation and approval.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area.
Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area.
Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhat is a key feature of Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS)?
Correct
Solution: A
RAS relies on advanced filtration systems to remove waste and pathogens, ensuring water quality and controlled conditions for aquaculture, reducing the need for antibiotics.
About Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS):
What it is:
A tank-based farming system that recycles water through mechanical and biological filtration.How it works:
- Water is filtered to remove waste and pathogens.
- Provides controlled conditions for temperature, oxygen, and water cleanliness.
- Ensures biosecurity with reduced need for antibiotics.
Incorrect
Solution: A
RAS relies on advanced filtration systems to remove waste and pathogens, ensuring water quality and controlled conditions for aquaculture, reducing the need for antibiotics.
About Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS):
What it is:
A tank-based farming system that recycles water through mechanical and biological filtration.How it works:
- Water is filtered to remove waste and pathogens.
- Provides controlled conditions for temperature, oxygen, and water cleanliness.
- Ensures biosecurity with reduced need for antibiotics.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding biofuels derived from rice straw:
- Biofuels reduce reliance on fossil fuels by using renewable resources.
- Bioethanol and biogas are examples of fuels derived from rice straw.
- The process of biofuel production completely eliminates greenhouse gas emissions.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
Biofuels derived from rice straw are gaining attention as sustainable energy alternatives.
- Statement 1 is correct. Biofuels like those derived from rice straw reduce dependency on fossil fuels by utilizing renewable agricultural waste, contributing to energy security and sustainability.
- Statement 2 is correct. Rice straw can be converted into bioethanol, a liquid biofuel used in blending with petrol, and biogas, a gaseous fuel suitable for cooking or electricity generation, making it a versatile resource for renewable energy.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. While biofuel production from rice straw significantly reduces greenhouse gas emissions compared to fossil fuels, it does not entirely eliminate emissions. The processes involved in production, transportation, and combustion still result in some level of emissions, though far lower than conventional fuels.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Biofuels derived from rice straw are gaining attention as sustainable energy alternatives.
- Statement 1 is correct. Biofuels like those derived from rice straw reduce dependency on fossil fuels by utilizing renewable agricultural waste, contributing to energy security and sustainability.
- Statement 2 is correct. Rice straw can be converted into bioethanol, a liquid biofuel used in blending with petrol, and biogas, a gaseous fuel suitable for cooking or electricity generation, making it a versatile resource for renewable energy.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. While biofuel production from rice straw significantly reduces greenhouse gas emissions compared to fossil fuels, it does not entirely eliminate emissions. The processes involved in production, transportation, and combustion still result in some level of emissions, though far lower than conventional fuels.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the significance of Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT):
- It simplifies the taxation system for manufacturers and service providers.
- It increases the overall cost of goods and services due to additional compliance.
- It encourages reinvestment in production and innovation by reducing tax burdens.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Statement 1 is correct as CENVAT simplifies the taxation process by allowing credit for input taxes.
Statement 2 is incorrect because CENVAT reduces costs by eliminating cascading taxes.
Statement 3 is correct as businesses save costs, which can be reinvested into production and innovation.
Significance of CENVAT:
- Avoids double taxation:Prevents repeated taxation on the same value addition.
- Simplifies taxation:Reduces the tax burden on manufacturers and service providers.
- Promotes competitiveness:Encourages businesses to reinvest savings in production and innovation.
- Consumer benefit:Reduces the overall cost of goods and services by eliminating cascading taxes.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Statement 1 is correct as CENVAT simplifies the taxation process by allowing credit for input taxes.
Statement 2 is incorrect because CENVAT reduces costs by eliminating cascading taxes.
Statement 3 is correct as businesses save costs, which can be reinvested into production and innovation.
Significance of CENVAT:
- Avoids double taxation:Prevents repeated taxation on the same value addition.
- Simplifies taxation:Reduces the tax burden on manufacturers and service providers.
- Promotes competitiveness:Encourages businesses to reinvest savings in production and innovation.
- Consumer benefit:Reduces the overall cost of goods and services by eliminating cascading taxes.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhat is the primary cause of the rapid decline in Dead Sea water levels?
Correct
Solution: C
The Dead Sea is fed by the Jordan River, but water levels are declining due to reduced inflow and intense evaporation.
About the Dead Sea:
- Geographical Location:A saltwater lake between Jordan, Israel, and the West Bank.
- Found at 430.5 meters below sea level—the lowest land-based elevation on Earth.
- Salinity:Contains 34.2% salinity, making it one of the saltiest water bodies globally, supporting only microorganisms and algae.
- Physical Dimensions:Covers 605 sq. km, 50 km long, and 15 km wide at its broadest.
- Hydrology:Fed by the Jordan River, with no outlet, losing water mainly through evaporation.
- Environmental Concerns:Rapidly declining water levels (~1 meter per year) due to evaporation and restricted tributary flow, impacting regional groundwater dynamics.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Dead Sea is fed by the Jordan River, but water levels are declining due to reduced inflow and intense evaporation.
About the Dead Sea:
- Geographical Location:A saltwater lake between Jordan, Israel, and the West Bank.
- Found at 430.5 meters below sea level—the lowest land-based elevation on Earth.
- Salinity:Contains 34.2% salinity, making it one of the saltiest water bodies globally, supporting only microorganisms and algae.
- Physical Dimensions:Covers 605 sq. km, 50 km long, and 15 km wide at its broadest.
- Hydrology:Fed by the Jordan River, with no outlet, losing water mainly through evaporation.
- Environmental Concerns:Rapidly declining water levels (~1 meter per year) due to evaporation and restricted tributary flow, impacting regional groundwater dynamics.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the FRBM Act, 2003, and its amendments:
- The FRBM Act was enacted to eliminate the revenue deficit and reduce the fiscal deficit.
- States are not required to enact their own fiscal responsibility laws under the FRBM framework.
- The FRBM Amendment Act, 2018, set a combined debt target of 60% of GDP for the Centre and States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The FRBM Act, 2003, was introduced to institutionalize fiscal discipline and enhance transparency in fiscal management. It aimed to eliminate the revenue deficit and reduce the fiscal deficit, ensuring long-term macroeconomic stability, which makes Statement 1 correct.
However, the Act requires both the Centre and states to implement fiscal responsibility laws. Many states have enacted their fiscal responsibility legislation to align with the principles of the FRBM framework, making Statement 2 incorrect.
The FRBM Amendment Act, 2018, updated the framework to address changing economic realities. It introduced a specific target for the overall public debt: a combined debt-to-GDP ratio of 60%, split as 40% for the Centre and 20% for the states. This makes Statement 3 correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The FRBM Act, 2003, was introduced to institutionalize fiscal discipline and enhance transparency in fiscal management. It aimed to eliminate the revenue deficit and reduce the fiscal deficit, ensuring long-term macroeconomic stability, which makes Statement 1 correct.
However, the Act requires both the Centre and states to implement fiscal responsibility laws. Many states have enacted their fiscal responsibility legislation to align with the principles of the FRBM framework, making Statement 2 incorrect.
The FRBM Amendment Act, 2018, updated the framework to address changing economic realities. It introduced a specific target for the overall public debt: a combined debt-to-GDP ratio of 60%, split as 40% for the Centre and 20% for the states. This makes Statement 3 correct.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Arctic Council.
Statement-I: The Arctic Council is a legally binding treaty-based organization governing the Arctic.
Statement-II: The Council was formed through the Ottawa Declaration and promotes cooperation on Arctic issues.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: D
Statement-I is incorrect: The Arctic Council is not treaty-based and its decisions are non-binding. It is a forum for voluntary cooperation, not a regulatory body like the Antarctic Treaty System.
Statement-II is correct: The Ottawa Declaration (1996) established the Council, emphasizing peaceful collaboration, Indigenous inclusion, and environmental sustainability. It serves as a platform to address shared Arctic challenges, though without legal enforcement.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Statement-I is incorrect: The Arctic Council is not treaty-based and its decisions are non-binding. It is a forum for voluntary cooperation, not a regulatory body like the Antarctic Treaty System.
Statement-II is correct: The Ottawa Declaration (1996) established the Council, emphasizing peaceful collaboration, Indigenous inclusion, and environmental sustainability. It serves as a platform to address shared Arctic challenges, though without legal enforcement.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for
Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Motivational and New
Join our Twitter Channel HERE
Follow our Instagram Channel HERE
Follow us on LinkedIn : HERE









