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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding nanoparticles (NPs):
- Nanoparticles can interact with hydroxyl radicals (OH) in the troposphere, potentially affecting atmospheric chemical processes.
- Nanoparticles increase the reflectivity of the Earth’s surface, thereby reducing global warming.
- Nanoparticles can contribute to the formation of secondary pollutants such as ground-level ozone and smog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Nanoparticles (NPs), particularly those present in the atmosphere as aerosols, play a complex role in atmospheric chemistry and climate processes.
Statement 1 is correct. Atmospheric nanoparticles provide a large surface area for chemical reactions and can interact with hydroxyl radicals (OH), which act as “atmospheric detergents” by breaking down pollutants. By reducing OH concentration, nanoparticles can influence the chemical lifetime of gases in the troposphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Nanoparticles do not increase the reflectivity of the Earth’s surface. Instead, they affect atmospheric or planetary albedo. Their impact on climate is mixed: some particles like sulfates reflect sunlight and have a cooling effect, while others like black carbon absorb heat and contribute to warming. Hence, stating that they reduce global warming is not accurate.
Statement 3 is correct. Nanoparticles facilitate the formation of secondary pollutants. They support reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight, leading to the formation of ground-level ozone and photochemical smog.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Nanoparticles (NPs), particularly those present in the atmosphere as aerosols, play a complex role in atmospheric chemistry and climate processes.
Statement 1 is correct. Atmospheric nanoparticles provide a large surface area for chemical reactions and can interact with hydroxyl radicals (OH), which act as “atmospheric detergents” by breaking down pollutants. By reducing OH concentration, nanoparticles can influence the chemical lifetime of gases in the troposphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Nanoparticles do not increase the reflectivity of the Earth’s surface. Instead, they affect atmospheric or planetary albedo. Their impact on climate is mixed: some particles like sulfates reflect sunlight and have a cooling effect, while others like black carbon absorb heat and contribute to warming. Hence, stating that they reduce global warming is not accurate.
Statement 3 is correct. Nanoparticles facilitate the formation of secondary pollutants. They support reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight, leading to the formation of ground-level ozone and photochemical smog.
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following radioactive materials has the longest half-life, thereby posing long-term environmental threats?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Uranium-238 has a half-life of approximately 4.5 billion years, making it the longest-lived isotope among the given options.
- In comparison:
- Iodine-131 → ~8 days
- Cesium-137 → ~30 years
- Strontium-90 → ~28 years
Due to its extremely long half-life, Uranium-238 persists in the environment for geological timescales, posing significant challenges for disposal and environmental containment.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Uranium-238 has a half-life of approximately 4.5 billion years, making it the longest-lived isotope among the given options.
- In comparison:
- Iodine-131 → ~8 days
- Cesium-137 → ~30 years
- Strontium-90 → ~28 years
Due to its extremely long half-life, Uranium-238 persists in the environment for geological timescales, posing significant challenges for disposal and environmental containment.
-
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025:
- These rules have been notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- Environmental damage or loss of life due to contamination attracts penalties under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
- Hazardous substances covered under the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 are included within its scope.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Context: The Union Environment Ministry has notified the Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025, offering India its first legal framework to scientifically identify, assess, and clean up chemically contaminated sites.
Statement 1 is correct because the rules have been notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which is the umbrella legislation empowering the government to frame such environmental rules.
Statement 2 is correct as environmental damage or loss of life due to contamination attracts penalties under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, indicating the application of criminal liability.
Statement 3 is also correct because the rules include hazardous substances covered under the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016, ensuring consistency with existing regulatory frameworks.
Hence, all three statements are correct.
Key Provisions:
- Site Identification & Monitoring:
- District authorities must submit biannual reports on suspected contaminated sites.
- State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) or designated bodies must provide a preliminary assessment within 90 days.
- Final Confirmation & Remediation:
- Within 180 days, sites must be fully evaluated and confirmed for contamination.
- A reference organisation (expert body) prepares a remediation plan.
- Responsibility & Liability:
- SPCBs must identify the polluter within 90 days.
- If untraceable or insolvent, the Centre and States jointly bear cleanup costs.
- Criminal liability enforced under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (2023) if human/environmental harm is proven.
- Transparency & Enforcement:
- Mandatory creation of a national inventory of contaminated sites.
- Public disclosure of cleanup status and annual audits required.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Context: The Union Environment Ministry has notified the Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025, offering India its first legal framework to scientifically identify, assess, and clean up chemically contaminated sites.
Statement 1 is correct because the rules have been notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which is the umbrella legislation empowering the government to frame such environmental rules.
Statement 2 is correct as environmental damage or loss of life due to contamination attracts penalties under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, indicating the application of criminal liability.
Statement 3 is also correct because the rules include hazardous substances covered under the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016, ensuring consistency with existing regulatory frameworks.
Hence, all three statements are correct.
Key Provisions:
- Site Identification & Monitoring:
- District authorities must submit biannual reports on suspected contaminated sites.
- State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) or designated bodies must provide a preliminary assessment within 90 days.
- Final Confirmation & Remediation:
- Within 180 days, sites must be fully evaluated and confirmed for contamination.
- A reference organisation (expert body) prepares a remediation plan.
- Responsibility & Liability:
- SPCBs must identify the polluter within 90 days.
- If untraceable or insolvent, the Centre and States jointly bear cleanup costs.
- Criminal liability enforced under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (2023) if human/environmental harm is proven.
- Transparency & Enforcement:
- Mandatory creation of a national inventory of contaminated sites.
- Public disclosure of cleanup status and annual audits required.
-
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs), consider the following statements:
- They are identified based on a single global standard involving multiple categories of criteria.
- They are designated by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and do not necessarily imply legal protection by the host country.
- They encompass terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) are the most comprehensive global framework for identifying sites that contribute significantly to the global persistence of biodiversity.
- Statement 1 is correct: KBAs are identified using the Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas. This standard uses a set of 11 criteria divided into five categories:
- Threatened biodiversity (species or ecosystems).
- Geographically restricted biodiversity.
- Ecological integrity.
- Biological processes (e.g., breeding or migratory bottlenecks).
- Irreplaceability (through quantitative analysis).
- Statement 2 is correct: The KBA framework was developed and is managed by the KBA Partnership, which includes the IUCN, BirdLife International, and others. While a site is “designated” as a KBA based on scientific data, this does not mandate legal protection. It is a tool for governments to prioritize areas for future protection, but many KBAs currently lack any formal legal status (like National Parks or Sanctuaries) in their host countries.
- Statement 3 is correct: The KBA concept is universal and covers all major biomes. It identifies critical sites in terrestrial (forests, grasslands), freshwater (lakes, river basins), and marine (coral reefs, seagrass beds) environments.
Value Addition
- KBA Partnership: It is a consortium of 13 of the world’s leading conservation organizations.
- Relationship with IBAs and AZEs: Familiar designations like Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs) and Alliance for Zero Extinction (AZE) sites are now considered subsets of the broader KBA framework.
- World Database of KBAs: This is the central repository where all identified KBAs are mapped and tracked globally to help businesses, governments, and NGOs make informed land-use decisions
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) are the most comprehensive global framework for identifying sites that contribute significantly to the global persistence of biodiversity.
- Statement 1 is correct: KBAs are identified using the Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas. This standard uses a set of 11 criteria divided into five categories:
- Threatened biodiversity (species or ecosystems).
- Geographically restricted biodiversity.
- Ecological integrity.
- Biological processes (e.g., breeding or migratory bottlenecks).
- Irreplaceability (through quantitative analysis).
- Statement 2 is correct: The KBA framework was developed and is managed by the KBA Partnership, which includes the IUCN, BirdLife International, and others. While a site is “designated” as a KBA based on scientific data, this does not mandate legal protection. It is a tool for governments to prioritize areas for future protection, but many KBAs currently lack any formal legal status (like National Parks or Sanctuaries) in their host countries.
- Statement 3 is correct: The KBA concept is universal and covers all major biomes. It identifies critical sites in terrestrial (forests, grasslands), freshwater (lakes, river basins), and marine (coral reefs, seagrass beds) environments.
Value Addition
- KBA Partnership: It is a consortium of 13 of the world’s leading conservation organizations.
- Relationship with IBAs and AZEs: Familiar designations like Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs) and Alliance for Zero Extinction (AZE) sites are now considered subsets of the broader KBA framework.
- World Database of KBAs: This is the central repository where all identified KBAs are mapped and tracked globally to help businesses, governments, and NGOs make informed land-use decisions
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures identifies the International Plant Protection Convention as the relevant organization for plant health standards.
Statement II: While IPPC standards (ISPMs) are not legally binding, they serve as the basis for phytosanitary measures under WTO law to prevent disguised trade protectionism.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: The WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) explicitly recognizes three “Sisters” as the standard-setting bodies for global health and safety. For plant health, it identifies the International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) as the relevant international organization.
Statement II is correct: The standards developed by the IPPC, known as International Standards for Phytosanitary Measures (ISPMs), are technically “voluntary” and not legally binding on their own. However, under the WTO SPS Agreement, if a country bases its national regulations on these ISPMs, those regulations are presumed to be consistent with WTO law. This prevents countries from using “pest control” as a disguised excuse for protectionism (trade barriers).
Statement II is a consequence or a function of their use, but it is not the reason why the SPS Agreement identifies the IPPC as the relevant organization
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: The WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) explicitly recognizes three “Sisters” as the standard-setting bodies for global health and safety. For plant health, it identifies the International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) as the relevant international organization.
Statement II is correct: The standards developed by the IPPC, known as International Standards for Phytosanitary Measures (ISPMs), are technically “voluntary” and not legally binding on their own. However, under the WTO SPS Agreement, if a country bases its national regulations on these ISPMs, those regulations are presumed to be consistent with WTO law. This prevents countries from using “pest control” as a disguised excuse for protectionism (trade barriers).
Statement II is a consequence or a function of their use, but it is not the reason why the SPS Agreement identifies the IPPC as the relevant organization
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH), consider the following statements:
- It refers to such areas of National Parks and Sanctuaries that are required to be kept inviolate for wildlife conservation.
- CWH can be declared without assessing whether coexistence between wildlife and rights holders is possible.
- The notification of CWH is published in the Official Gazette after due process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
The concept of Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH) is unique to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA). It is distinct from “Critical Tiger Habitats,” which are defined under the Wildlife Protection Act.
- Statement 1 is correct: According to the FRA, CWHs are defined as areas within National Parks and Sanctuaries that are required to be kept inviolate (undisturbed by human activity) for the purposes of wildlife conservation. The determination of these areas must be based on scientific and objective criteria.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The FRA mandate is very specific: a CWH cannot be declared unless it has been scientifically established that the activities or presence of forest dwellers are causing irreversible damage to wildlife and that “the option of coexistence and self-management has been examined and found to be not viable.” In other words, assessing the possibility of coexistence is a mandatory legal prerequisite.
- Statement 3 is correct: Once the expert committee has completed the scientific assessment, consulted the local Gram Sabhas, and finalized the resettlement scheme (if any), the notification of the CWH is officially published in the Official Gazette. This makes the designation legally binding.
In 2015, the Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh became the first community in India to get “Habitat Rights” under the FRA, highlighting the tension and synergy between CWH designations and tribal land rights.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
The concept of Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH) is unique to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA). It is distinct from “Critical Tiger Habitats,” which are defined under the Wildlife Protection Act.
- Statement 1 is correct: According to the FRA, CWHs are defined as areas within National Parks and Sanctuaries that are required to be kept inviolate (undisturbed by human activity) for the purposes of wildlife conservation. The determination of these areas must be based on scientific and objective criteria.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The FRA mandate is very specific: a CWH cannot be declared unless it has been scientifically established that the activities or presence of forest dwellers are causing irreversible damage to wildlife and that “the option of coexistence and self-management has been examined and found to be not viable.” In other words, assessing the possibility of coexistence is a mandatory legal prerequisite.
- Statement 3 is correct: Once the expert committee has completed the scientific assessment, consulted the local Gram Sabhas, and finalized the resettlement scheme (if any), the notification of the CWH is officially published in the Official Gazette. This makes the designation legally binding.
In 2015, the Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh became the first community in India to get “Habitat Rights” under the FRA, highlighting the tension and synergy between CWH designations and tribal land rights.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following features:
- High seed production
- Relatively slower growth rate
- Low nutritional requirement of seedlings
- Limited dependence on mycorrhizae
Which of the above are characteristic features of ruderal species?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Ruderal species are plants that thrive in environments characterized by high levels of disturbance but low levels of environmental stress (such as nutrient deficiency or extreme cold). This concept is part of Philip Grime’s C-S-R Triangle theory of plant strategies.
- 1. High seed production (Correct): Ruderal species (like many common weeds) invest heavily in reproduction. Since their habitat is unpredictable and frequently disturbed (e.g., a plowed field or a roadside), they produce a vast number of seeds to ensure that at least some find a suitable patch to grow in the next cycle.
- 2. Relatively slower growth rate (Incorrect): Ruderals are characterized by an extremely rapid growth rate. They must complete their life cycle (from germination to seed production) quickly before the next disturbance event occurs. Slow growth is a trait of “Stress-tolerators” (like cacti or deep-forest mosses).
- 3. Low nutritional requirement of seedlings (Correct): Because they often colonize raw, disturbed soils where nutrient cycles may be disrupted or topsoil has been removed, their seedlings are adapted to survive and establish themselves with minimal initial nutrient availability.
- 4. Limited dependence on mycorrhizae (Correct): Mycorrhizae are symbiotic fungi that help plants absorb nutrients. Since ruderals grow very fast and often in disturbed soils where fungal networks have been broken, they have evolved to have limited or no dependence on these symbioses. They rely on their own rapid root expansion instead.
Ruderals are classic r-strategists. They emphasize high growth rates and producing many offspring, typically inhabiting unstable environments.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Ruderal species are plants that thrive in environments characterized by high levels of disturbance but low levels of environmental stress (such as nutrient deficiency or extreme cold). This concept is part of Philip Grime’s C-S-R Triangle theory of plant strategies.
- 1. High seed production (Correct): Ruderal species (like many common weeds) invest heavily in reproduction. Since their habitat is unpredictable and frequently disturbed (e.g., a plowed field or a roadside), they produce a vast number of seeds to ensure that at least some find a suitable patch to grow in the next cycle.
- 2. Relatively slower growth rate (Incorrect): Ruderals are characterized by an extremely rapid growth rate. They must complete their life cycle (from germination to seed production) quickly before the next disturbance event occurs. Slow growth is a trait of “Stress-tolerators” (like cacti or deep-forest mosses).
- 3. Low nutritional requirement of seedlings (Correct): Because they often colonize raw, disturbed soils where nutrient cycles may be disrupted or topsoil has been removed, their seedlings are adapted to survive and establish themselves with minimal initial nutrient availability.
- 4. Limited dependence on mycorrhizae (Correct): Mycorrhizae are symbiotic fungi that help plants absorb nutrients. Since ruderals grow very fast and often in disturbed soils where fungal networks have been broken, they have evolved to have limited or no dependence on these symbioses. They rely on their own rapid root expansion instead.
Ruderals are classic r-strategists. They emphasize high growth rates and producing many offspring, typically inhabiting unstable environments.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Integrated Forum on Climate Change and Trade (IFCCT):
- IFCCT is a negotiating platform under WTO to create binding global rules on green subsidies and climate-linked tariffs.
- It was launched at COP30 in Belém, Brazil, in 2025.
- The forum aims to facilitate dialogue on trade–climate tensions without imposing binding commitments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
IFCCT is a non-negotiating, politically supported platform—not a WTO negotiating forum—and it does not create binding rules. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It was formally launched at COP30 in Belém, Brazil, on 15 November 2025. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Its purpose is to allow candid dialogue on climate-trade frictions—such as CBAM, green subsidies and supply-chain disruptions—without formal commitments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.Key Features:
- Non-negotiating dialogue platform: Allows candid discussions without binding commitments.
- Open-ended consultation process (2025–26): Countries can shape agenda, jurisdiction, and priority themes.
- Focus on climate–trade coherence: Addresses unilateral climate trade measures, decarbonisation pathways, and developing-country concerns.
- High-level, politically supported engagement: Participation from ministers, WTO leadership, climate experts, and industry bodies.
- Geneva-based consultation: Integrates climate-trade debate within the global trade governance ecosystem.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
IFCCT is a non-negotiating, politically supported platform—not a WTO negotiating forum—and it does not create binding rules. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It was formally launched at COP30 in Belém, Brazil, on 15 November 2025. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Its purpose is to allow candid dialogue on climate-trade frictions—such as CBAM, green subsidies and supply-chain disruptions—without formal commitments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.Key Features:
- Non-negotiating dialogue platform: Allows candid discussions without binding commitments.
- Open-ended consultation process (2025–26): Countries can shape agenda, jurisdiction, and priority themes.
- Focus on climate–trade coherence: Addresses unilateral climate trade measures, decarbonisation pathways, and developing-country concerns.
- High-level, politically supported engagement: Participation from ministers, WTO leadership, climate experts, and industry bodies.
- Geneva-based consultation: Integrates climate-trade debate within the global trade governance ecosystem.
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following best describes the primary objective of the AmazonFACE experiment?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The AmazonFACE (Free-Air CO₂ Enrichment) experiment is a pioneering climate research project in the Amazon rainforest led by Brazil’s National Institute for Amazonian Research (INPA) and the U.S. Department of Energy. Its primary objective is to understand how increased atmospheric CO₂ concentrations, projected for the coming decades, will affect the growth, physiology, and carbon absorption potential of mature tropical forests.
Using large open-air rings that release controlled amounts of CO₂, the experiment simulates future atmospheric conditions without enclosing the trees, allowing scientists to study how the Amazon ecosystem responds to elevated CO₂ in terms of photosynthesis, water use, and nutrient cycling.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The AmazonFACE (Free-Air CO₂ Enrichment) experiment is a pioneering climate research project in the Amazon rainforest led by Brazil’s National Institute for Amazonian Research (INPA) and the U.S. Department of Energy. Its primary objective is to understand how increased atmospheric CO₂ concentrations, projected for the coming decades, will affect the growth, physiology, and carbon absorption potential of mature tropical forests.
Using large open-air rings that release controlled amounts of CO₂, the experiment simulates future atmospheric conditions without enclosing the trees, allowing scientists to study how the Amazon ecosystem responds to elevated CO₂ in terms of photosynthesis, water use, and nutrient cycling.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of tiger reserves and their respective features:
Tiger Reserve State Unique Feature 1. Bandipur Karnataka Part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve 2. Kanha Madhya Pradesh First tiger reserve to introduce an official mascot 3. Sathyamangalam Tamil Nadu Serves as a corridor between the Eastern and Western Ghats 4. Namdapha Assam Among the highest elevation tiger reserves in the world How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Tiger conservation in India is managed through Project Tiger (now under the National Tiger Conservation Authority – NTCA). Each reserve is selected not just for its tiger population, but for its role in maintaining broader ecological connectivity and protecting unique regional biodiversity.
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bandipur Tiger Reserve was established in 1974. It is a critical component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, forming a massive protected landscape along with Nagarhole (Karnataka), Mudumalai (Tamil Nadu), and Wayanad (Kerala).
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: Kanha Tiger Reserve made history in 2017 by becoming the first tiger reserve in India to introduce an official mascot: ‘Bhoorsingh the Barasingha’. This was done to spread awareness about the Swamp Deer (Barasingha), which was brought back from the brink of extinction within the park.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) is strategically located at the confluence of the Eastern and Western Ghats. It acts as a vital genetic bridge, allowing wildlife—especially elephants and tigers—to move between the two major hill ranges. It received the ‘TX2’ award in 2022 for doubling its tiger population.
- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Namdapha Tiger Reserve is unique due to its extreme altitudinal variation (from 200m to over 4,500m). It is one of the highest elevation tiger reserves globally. It is also famous for being the only park in the world to host four feline species of the genus Panthera: the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, and Clouded Leopard.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Tiger conservation in India is managed through Project Tiger (now under the National Tiger Conservation Authority – NTCA). Each reserve is selected not just for its tiger population, but for its role in maintaining broader ecological connectivity and protecting unique regional biodiversity.
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bandipur Tiger Reserve was established in 1974. It is a critical component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, forming a massive protected landscape along with Nagarhole (Karnataka), Mudumalai (Tamil Nadu), and Wayanad (Kerala).
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: Kanha Tiger Reserve made history in 2017 by becoming the first tiger reserve in India to introduce an official mascot: ‘Bhoorsingh the Barasingha’. This was done to spread awareness about the Swamp Deer (Barasingha), which was brought back from the brink of extinction within the park.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) is strategically located at the confluence of the Eastern and Western Ghats. It acts as a vital genetic bridge, allowing wildlife—especially elephants and tigers—to move between the two major hill ranges. It received the ‘TX2’ award in 2022 for doubling its tiger population.
- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Namdapha Tiger Reserve is unique due to its extreme altitudinal variation (from 200m to over 4,500m). It is one of the highest elevation tiger reserves globally. It is also famous for being the only park in the world to host four feline species of the genus Panthera: the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, and Clouded Leopard.
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsA shopkeeper sells an article at a loss of 10%. If he had sold it for ₹75 more, he would have gained 5%. What is the cost price of the article?
Correct
Answer: (b) 500
Explanation:
Assume cost price = 100 units.
Loss of 10% means selling price becomes 90 units.
Gain of 5% means selling price becomes 105 units.Difference between the two selling prices = 105 − 90 = 15 units.
This difference corresponds to ₹75.So, 15 units = 75
1 unit = 5Therefore, cost price (100 units) = 100 × 5 = ₹500
Incorrect
Answer: (b) 500
Explanation:
Assume cost price = 100 units.
Loss of 10% means selling price becomes 90 units.
Gain of 5% means selling price becomes 105 units.Difference between the two selling prices = 105 − 90 = 15 units.
This difference corresponds to ₹75.So, 15 units = 75
1 unit = 5Therefore, cost price (100 units) = 100 × 5 = ₹500
-
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsBy selling 33 metres of cloth, a person gains the cost price of 11 metres. Find the gain percentage.
Correct
Answer: (c) 33 1/3%
Explanation:
Let cost price of 1 metre = ₹1
Cost price of 33 metres = ₹33
Gain = cost price of 11 metres = ₹11Gain percentage = (Gain ÷ Cost Price) × 100
= (11 ÷ 33) × 100
= 1/3 × 100
= 33 1/3%Incorrect
Answer: (c) 33 1/3%
Explanation:
Let cost price of 1 metre = ₹1
Cost price of 33 metres = ₹33
Gain = cost price of 11 metres = ₹11Gain percentage = (Gain ÷ Cost Price) × 100
= (11 ÷ 33) × 100
= 1/3 × 100
= 33 1/3% -
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsA dishonest dealer claims to sell goods at cost price but uses a weight of 900 grams instead of 1 kilogram. Find his real gain percentage.
Correct
Answer: (b) 11 1/9%
Explanation:
He charges for 1000 g but gives only 900 g.
So,
Cost price corresponds to 900 g
Selling price corresponds to 1000 gGain = 1000 − 900 = 100 g
Gain percentage = (Gain ÷ Actual cost) × 100
= (100 ÷ 900) × 100
= 1/9 × 100
= 11 1/9%Incorrect
Answer: (b) 11 1/9%
Explanation:
He charges for 1000 g but gives only 900 g.
So,
Cost price corresponds to 900 g
Selling price corresponds to 1000 gGain = 1000 − 900 = 100 g
Gain percentage = (Gain ÷ Actual cost) × 100
= (100 ÷ 900) × 100
= 1/9 × 100
= 11 1/9% -
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsIf the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles, find the gain or loss percentage.
Correct
Answer: (c) 25% gain
Explanation:
Let cost price of 1 article = ₹1
Cost price of 15 articles = ₹15
Selling price of 12 articles = ₹15So, selling price of 1 article = 15 ÷ 12 = ₹1.25
Gain per article = 1.25 − 1 = 0.25
Gain percentage = (0.25 ÷ 1) × 100 = 25%
Incorrect
Answer: (c) 25% gain
Explanation:
Let cost price of 1 article = ₹1
Cost price of 15 articles = ₹15
Selling price of 12 articles = ₹15So, selling price of 1 article = 15 ÷ 12 = ₹1.25
Gain per article = 1.25 − 1 = 0.25
Gain percentage = (0.25 ÷ 1) × 100 = 25%
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsPassage
The climate crisis is not just a problem for the future; it is a reality that is already unfolding. While transition to renewable energy is crucial, it is equally important to focus on adaptation and resilience. Developing nations, despite contributing the least to historical emissions, are the most vulnerable to the impacts of climate change. A global financial architecture that supports green technology transfer and provides accessible climate finance is no longer an option but a necessity for survival.
Which of the following is the most logical inference from the passage?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes that climate change is already occurring and requires both mitigation and adaptation. It highlights a key imbalance: developing countries have contributed the least to historical emissions but are the most affected. Therefore, the need for a global financial system that enables technology transfer and climate finance becomes essential. This directly supports the idea of climate justice, where those more responsible (developed nations) must assist the more vulnerable. Option (a) captures this central idea accurately. The other options either exaggerate one solution, contradict the passage, or assume adequacy of current efforts, which the passage clearly rejects.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes that climate change is already occurring and requires both mitigation and adaptation. It highlights a key imbalance: developing countries have contributed the least to historical emissions but are the most affected. Therefore, the need for a global financial system that enables technology transfer and climate finance becomes essential. This directly supports the idea of climate justice, where those more responsible (developed nations) must assist the more vulnerable. Option (a) captures this central idea accurately. The other options either exaggerate one solution, contradict the passage, or assume adequacy of current efforts, which the passage clearly rejects.
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