The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Economic Stabilisation Fund set up by the Government of India:
Statement I: The Finance Minister can utilize the Economic Stabilisation Fund to meet unanticipated expenditures caused by global supply chain disruptions.
Statement II: The Economic Stabilisation Fund provides the government with fiscal headroom without requiring immediate legislative approval for every emergency disbursement.
Statement III: The expenditure from the Economic Stabilisation Fund is designed to be deficit-neutral by managing it alongside additional receipts.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct. The Economic Stabilisation Fund (ESF) is a specialized fiscal mechanism introduced by the Ministry of Finance to help India navigate global headwinds, such as oil price shocks or supply chain disruptions. It acts as a financial buffer against volatile external factors.
- Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The primary purpose of such a fund is to provide fiscal headroom, allowing the government the flexibility to respond to emergencies Without such a mechanism, the government might face legislative delays when quick action is needed to stabilize the economy during a crisis.
- Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I. A major concern with emergency spending is its impact on the fiscal deficit. The ESF is managed alongside additional receipts, ensuring that the fiscal deficit target (4% of GDP for 2025-26) remains unaffected. By being deficit-neutral, the fund allows the government to spend on stabilization measures (Statement I) without compromising long-term macroeconomic stability.
- Since both the need for flexibility (Statement II) and the ability to maintain fiscal targets (Statement III) are the foundational reasons why the Finance Minister can effectively use this fund for global shocks, both statements explain the utility mentioned in Statement I.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct. The Economic Stabilisation Fund (ESF) is a specialized fiscal mechanism introduced by the Ministry of Finance to help India navigate global headwinds, such as oil price shocks or supply chain disruptions. It acts as a financial buffer against volatile external factors.
- Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The primary purpose of such a fund is to provide fiscal headroom, allowing the government the flexibility to respond to emergencies Without such a mechanism, the government might face legislative delays when quick action is needed to stabilize the economy during a crisis.
- Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I. A major concern with emergency spending is its impact on the fiscal deficit. The ESF is managed alongside additional receipts, ensuring that the fiscal deficit target (4% of GDP for 2025-26) remains unaffected. By being deficit-neutral, the fund allows the government to spend on stabilization measures (Statement I) without compromising long-term macroeconomic stability.
- Since both the need for flexibility (Statement II) and the ability to maintain fiscal targets (Statement III) are the foundational reasons why the Finance Minister can effectively use this fund for global shocks, both statements explain the utility mentioned in Statement I.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Liberties Clause’ in maritime law:
Statement-I: The Liberties Clause allows a shipmaster to deviate from a customary route to avoid high-risk zones without breaching the contract of carriage.
Statement-II: This clause is a modern legal innovation designed specifically to address 21st-century threats like drone warfare and cyber-piracy.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Liberties Clause, also known as the Deviation Clause, is a standard provision in a Bill of Lading that empowers a carrier to alter a planned voyage under specific, unforeseen circumstances.
- Statement-I is correct because the primary function of this clause is to grant the shipmaster legal authority to deviate from the planned geographical route to ensure the safety of the vessel, crew, and cargo, particularly when entering war zones or high-risk areas.
- Statement-II is incorrect because this is not a modern innovation. Its origins trace back to 19th-century maritime law. During that era, wooden ships faced unpredictable risks such as piracy and regional wars, necessitating a legal mechanism to protect carriers from liability for breach of contract when external dangers forced a change in route. While it is being revived today due to the West Asia conflict and threats in the Strait of Hormuz, the legal principle itself is centuries old.
- The significance of this clause lies in its risk reallocation. When a carrier invokes it, the responsibility for costs—including storage, handling, and onward land transport from an alternative discharge port—shifts entirely to the cargo owner. This has led to massive disruptions in global supply chains, as nearly 90% of global trade moves by sea, and unplanned deviations create a domino effect on inventory planning and pricing.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Liberties Clause, also known as the Deviation Clause, is a standard provision in a Bill of Lading that empowers a carrier to alter a planned voyage under specific, unforeseen circumstances.
- Statement-I is correct because the primary function of this clause is to grant the shipmaster legal authority to deviate from the planned geographical route to ensure the safety of the vessel, crew, and cargo, particularly when entering war zones or high-risk areas.
- Statement-II is incorrect because this is not a modern innovation. Its origins trace back to 19th-century maritime law. During that era, wooden ships faced unpredictable risks such as piracy and regional wars, necessitating a legal mechanism to protect carriers from liability for breach of contract when external dangers forced a change in route. While it is being revived today due to the West Asia conflict and threats in the Strait of Hormuz, the legal principle itself is centuries old.
- The significance of this clause lies in its risk reallocation. When a carrier invokes it, the responsibility for costs—including storage, handling, and onward land transport from an alternative discharge port—shifts entirely to the cargo owner. This has led to massive disruptions in global supply chains, as nearly 90% of global trade moves by sea, and unplanned deviations create a domino effect on inventory planning and pricing.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘PRARAMBH 2026’ campaign, consider the following statements:
- It is a nationwide outreach program aimed at facilitating the implementation of the Income Tax Act, 2025.
- The campaign is executed by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) under the Ministry of Finance.
- It mandates the use of digital tools like AI chatbots, effectively removing the need for physical support centers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Government of India launched PRARAMBH 2026 (Policy Reform and Responsible Action for Mission Viksit Bharat) as a massive awareness campaign.
- Statement 1 is correct as the campaign’s core objective is to educate taxpayers and officials about the provisions and compliance requirements of the new Income Tax Act, 2025, which becomes effective from April 1, 2026. This reflects a transition toward a more simplified and technology-driven tax regime.
- Statement 2 is correct because the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is the apex body responsible for administering direct taxes and executing the outreach reforms, while the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue) serves as the nodal authority framing the policy. The campaign utilizes multimedia outreach and capacity-building workshops to ensure uniform implementation across the country.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because while the campaign emphasizes digital tools like ‘Kar Saathi’ (an AI chatbot) and Website 2.0 to enhance user experience, it does not remove physical support. On the contrary, it leverages Aaykar Seva Kendras as physical help centers to assist taxpayers who may lack digital access. This ensures that the transition is inclusive and adheres to the principle of ‘Nagrik Devo Bhava’, prioritizing taxpayer convenience and service orientation across all segments of society.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Government of India launched PRARAMBH 2026 (Policy Reform and Responsible Action for Mission Viksit Bharat) as a massive awareness campaign.
- Statement 1 is correct as the campaign’s core objective is to educate taxpayers and officials about the provisions and compliance requirements of the new Income Tax Act, 2025, which becomes effective from April 1, 2026. This reflects a transition toward a more simplified and technology-driven tax regime.
- Statement 2 is correct because the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is the apex body responsible for administering direct taxes and executing the outreach reforms, while the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue) serves as the nodal authority framing the policy. The campaign utilizes multimedia outreach and capacity-building workshops to ensure uniform implementation across the country.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because while the campaign emphasizes digital tools like ‘Kar Saathi’ (an AI chatbot) and Website 2.0 to enhance user experience, it does not remove physical support. On the contrary, it leverages Aaykar Seva Kendras as physical help centers to assist taxpayers who may lack digital access. This ensures that the transition is inclusive and adheres to the principle of ‘Nagrik Devo Bhava’, prioritizing taxpayer convenience and service orientation across all segments of society.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsMatch the Following:
Constitutional Provision Subject Matter A. Article 110 1. Appropriation Bills B. Article 114 2. Supplementary, Additional or Excess Grants C. Article 115 3. Money Bills D. Article 116 4. Votes on Account Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- Article 110 defines Money Bills. This is a foundational article because it determines the special legislative procedure where the Lok Sabha has overriding powers. The Appropriation Bill is classified under this article.
- Article 114 specifically mandates Appropriation Bills. It states that no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law.
- Article 115 deals with Supplementary, Additional, or Excess Grants. If the amount authorized by the Appropriation Act for a particular service is found to be insufficient, or if a need arises for additional expenditure, the government approaches Parliament under this article.
- Article 116 provides for Votes on Account, Votes of Credit, and Exceptional Grants. This allows the Lok Sabha to authorize the withdrawal of funds from the CFI for a part of the financial year pending the completion of the budgetary process.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Article 110 defines Money Bills. This is a foundational article because it determines the special legislative procedure where the Lok Sabha has overriding powers. The Appropriation Bill is classified under this article.
- Article 114 specifically mandates Appropriation Bills. It states that no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law.
- Article 115 deals with Supplementary, Additional, or Excess Grants. If the amount authorized by the Appropriation Act for a particular service is found to be insufficient, or if a need arises for additional expenditure, the government approaches Parliament under this article.
- Article 116 provides for Votes on Account, Votes of Credit, and Exceptional Grants. This allows the Lok Sabha to authorize the withdrawal of funds from the CFI for a part of the financial year pending the completion of the budgetary process.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsIn the context of ‘Nd-Fe-B’ Rare Earth Permanent Magnets, consider the following statements:
- They are the strongest type of permanent magnets commercially available, categorized as ‘super magnets’.
- The presence of Iron (Fe) in these magnets provides high magnetization but also makes them susceptible to corrosion.
- These magnets maintain their magnetic force indefinitely without requiring an external power source.
- Their magnetic performance is generally unaffected by extreme temperature variations.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Nd-Fe-B (Neodymium-Iron-Boron) magnets are a critical component in modern technology.
- Statements 1 and 3 are correct; they are known as permanent magnets because they maintain high magnetic force indefinitely without external power, and they are the strongest commercially available magnets, often called “super magnets” due to their high energy product. This allows very small magnets to produce intense magnetic fields, making them vital for smartphones and headphones.
- Statement 2 is correct because Iron (Fe) is the primary metallic component providing high magnetization, but it also makes the material prone to oxidization/rusting. Consequently, these magnets require protective coatings like nickel or epoxy.
- Statement 4 is incorrect because Nd-Fe-B magnets are actually temperature sensitive. Their magnetic performance can significantly decrease at high temperatures. To improve their stability in high-heat environments—such as in electric vehicle motors or wind turbine generators—heavy rare earth elements like Dysprosium must be added.
India’s pilot plant at ARCI, Hyderabad, aims to create a “mineral-to-market” ecosystem. By mastering the complex manufacturing process—which involves strip-casting, pulverizing, and vacuum sintering—India seeks to mitigate vulnerabilities in the global supply chain, where rare earth resources are highly concentrated in a few nations.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Nd-Fe-B (Neodymium-Iron-Boron) magnets are a critical component in modern technology.
- Statements 1 and 3 are correct; they are known as permanent magnets because they maintain high magnetic force indefinitely without external power, and they are the strongest commercially available magnets, often called “super magnets” due to their high energy product. This allows very small magnets to produce intense magnetic fields, making them vital for smartphones and headphones.
- Statement 2 is correct because Iron (Fe) is the primary metallic component providing high magnetization, but it also makes the material prone to oxidization/rusting. Consequently, these magnets require protective coatings like nickel or epoxy.
- Statement 4 is incorrect because Nd-Fe-B magnets are actually temperature sensitive. Their magnetic performance can significantly decrease at high temperatures. To improve their stability in high-heat environments—such as in electric vehicle motors or wind turbine generators—heavy rare earth elements like Dysprosium must be added.
India’s pilot plant at ARCI, Hyderabad, aims to create a “mineral-to-market” ecosystem. By mastering the complex manufacturing process—which involves strip-casting, pulverizing, and vacuum sintering—India seeks to mitigate vulnerabilities in the global supply chain, where rare earth resources are highly concentrated in a few nations.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Appropriation Bill 2026, which of the following statements are correct?
- It includes both “voted” expenditures and “charged” expenditures upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
- The Rajya Sabha has the power to reject the Bill if it finds the budgetary allocations unrealistic.
- No amendment can be proposed to this Bill in either House that alters the destination of any grant already voted upon.
- The Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha only after the voting on Demands for Grants is completed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct. The Appropriation Bill covers the entire gamut of government spending from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). This includes voted expenditures (those requiring a vote in the Lok Sabha) and charged expenditures (which are not voted upon, such as the salaries of the President, Supreme Court Judges, and interest payments on national debt).
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Because the Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend it. It can only make recommendations, and if it does not return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form it was passed by the Lok Sabha.
- Statement 3 is correct. A unique feature of the Appropriation Bill is that no amendment can be proposed in either House that would vary the amount or alter the destination of any grant previously voted upon by the Lok Sabha. This maintains the sanctity of the voting on Demands for Grants.
Statement 4 is correct. The sequence of the Budgetary Process is strictly followed: Presentation -> General Discussion -> Voting on Demands for Grants -> Introduction of the Appropriation Bill. The Bill provides the legal “teeth” to the grants already approved. This process ensures transparency and fiscal discipline in government spending.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is correct. The Appropriation Bill covers the entire gamut of government spending from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). This includes voted expenditures (those requiring a vote in the Lok Sabha) and charged expenditures (which are not voted upon, such as the salaries of the President, Supreme Court Judges, and interest payments on national debt).
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Because the Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend it. It can only make recommendations, and if it does not return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form it was passed by the Lok Sabha.
- Statement 3 is correct. A unique feature of the Appropriation Bill is that no amendment can be proposed in either House that would vary the amount or alter the destination of any grant previously voted upon by the Lok Sabha. This maintains the sanctity of the voting on Demands for Grants.
Statement 4 is correct. The sequence of the Budgetary Process is strictly followed: Presentation -> General Discussion -> Voting on Demands for Grants -> Introduction of the Appropriation Bill. The Bill provides the legal “teeth” to the grants already approved. This process ensures transparency and fiscal discipline in government spending.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsMalawi is a landlocked country located in which part of the African continent?
Correct
Solution: D
- Malawi is a landlocked republic located in Southeastern Africa. It occupies a narrow strip of land along the East African Rift Valley. The country is bordered by Zambia to the west, Tanzania to the north and northeast, and Mozambique to the east, south, and southwest.
Its most dominant geographic feature is Lake Malawi (also known as Lake Nyasa), which covers more than one-fifth of its total area and is the third-largest lake in Africa. Malawi’s topography is characterized by highland plateaus and the Shire River, which is a critical source for hydroelectric power, an area where India and Malawi have recently sought to strengthen bilateral cooperation.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Malawi is a landlocked republic located in Southeastern Africa. It occupies a narrow strip of land along the East African Rift Valley. The country is bordered by Zambia to the west, Tanzania to the north and northeast, and Mozambique to the east, south, and southwest.
Its most dominant geographic feature is Lake Malawi (also known as Lake Nyasa), which covers more than one-fifth of its total area and is the third-largest lake in Africa. Malawi’s topography is characterized by highland plateaus and the Shire River, which is a critical source for hydroelectric power, an area where India and Malawi have recently sought to strengthen bilateral cooperation.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the powers of a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC):
Statement I: A JPC has the authority to summon any person, including government officials, to give evidence or produce documents.
Statement II: The recommendations of a JPC are legally binding on the Government of India.
Statement III: A JPC can be authorized to investigate matters related to financial irregularities and statutory loopholes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct; the JPC has extensive powers to collect evidence and summon experts or officials.
- Statement II is incorrect; like most parliamentary committees, the JPC’s recommendations are not legally binding on the government. The government is expected to take them seriously and submit an “Action Taken Report,” but it is not a legal mandate.
- Statement III is correct; JPCs are frequently set up for fact-finding missions regarding scams or regulatory failures. In the given options, Statement III is the correct statement that aligns with the investigative nature mentioned in Statement I.
- The JPC serves as a crucial link in the chain of accountability. While its findings are advisory, the political and moral weight of a bi-partisan report is significant. It allows for expert deliberation on complex bills, such as ‘One Nation, One Election’, where technical and constitutional nuances require more than just a floor debate. By summoning officials, the committee can uncover administrative lapses or regulatory gaps that led to a particular issue. This investigative process ensures that when the final report is submitted, it contains a balanced perspective from across the political spectrum. The committee system, strengthened in 1993, remains a hallmark of the Indian Parliament’s ability to conduct in-depth scrutiny of the Executive’s actions and proposed legislations.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct; the JPC has extensive powers to collect evidence and summon experts or officials.
- Statement II is incorrect; like most parliamentary committees, the JPC’s recommendations are not legally binding on the government. The government is expected to take them seriously and submit an “Action Taken Report,” but it is not a legal mandate.
- Statement III is correct; JPCs are frequently set up for fact-finding missions regarding scams or regulatory failures. In the given options, Statement III is the correct statement that aligns with the investigative nature mentioned in Statement I.
- The JPC serves as a crucial link in the chain of accountability. While its findings are advisory, the political and moral weight of a bi-partisan report is significant. It allows for expert deliberation on complex bills, such as ‘One Nation, One Election’, where technical and constitutional nuances require more than just a floor debate. By summoning officials, the committee can uncover administrative lapses or regulatory gaps that led to a particular issue. This investigative process ensures that when the final report is submitted, it contains a balanced perspective from across the political spectrum. The committee system, strengthened in 1993, remains a hallmark of the Indian Parliament’s ability to conduct in-depth scrutiny of the Executive’s actions and proposed legislations.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsIn the manufacture of Nd-Fe-B magnets, what is the primary purpose of the ‘Sintering’ process?
Correct
Solution: B
- The manufacturing of Nd-Fe-B rare earth permanent magnets involves a sophisticated “end-to-end” metallurgical process. Sintering is the most critical step in creating the final solid product. After the rare earth alloy is pulverized into a fine powder and pressed within a magnetic field (to align the particles for maximum strength), the material is still just a fragile “green” compact.
- Sintering involves heating this pressed powder in a vacuum or inert atmosphere to a temperature below its melting point. This causes the particles to bond together through atomic diffusion, resulting in a solid, high-density magnet with the desired mechanical and magnetic properties. Without sintering, the magnet would lack the structural integrity required for industrial use.
- The other steps mentioned are also part of the process: strip-casting (Option d) is the initial step to create alloy flakes; pulverization (Option c) creates the powder; and coating (Option a) is the final finishing step to prevent corrosion due to the high iron content.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The manufacturing of Nd-Fe-B rare earth permanent magnets involves a sophisticated “end-to-end” metallurgical process. Sintering is the most critical step in creating the final solid product. After the rare earth alloy is pulverized into a fine powder and pressed within a magnetic field (to align the particles for maximum strength), the material is still just a fragile “green” compact.
- Sintering involves heating this pressed powder in a vacuum or inert atmosphere to a temperature below its melting point. This causes the particles to bond together through atomic diffusion, resulting in a solid, high-density magnet with the desired mechanical and magnetic properties. Without sintering, the magnet would lack the structural integrity required for industrial use.
- The other steps mentioned are also part of the process: strip-casting (Option d) is the initial step to create alloy flakes; pulverization (Option c) creates the powder; and coating (Option a) is the final finishing step to prevent corrosion due to the high iron content.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Right to Life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution includes the Right to Die with dignity as a fundamental right.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court in the Common Cause Case (2018) legalized active euthanasia to relieve terminal suffering for patients in a permanent vegetative state.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement-I is correct. In the landmark Common Cause vs. Union of India (2018) case, a five-judge Constitution Bench held that the Right to Life with dignity under Article 21 includes the right to a dignified dying process. This expanded the scope of individual autonomy over one’s body in terminal conditions.
- Statement-II is incorrect because the Supreme Court legalized Passive Euthanasia, not active euthanasia. Active euthanasia (administering lethal substances) remains illegal and is treated as culpable homicide in India. The court distinguished between “ending life” and “withdrawing life support” to allow nature to take its course.
- The 2018 judgment specifically focused on Living Wills (Advance Medical Directives), allowing individuals to decide in advance against life-sustaining treatment if they reach an incurable stage. Earlier, the Gian Kaur Case (1996) had clarified that Article 21 does not include a “right to die” in the sense of unnatural termination of life, but the 2018 ruling refined this to uphold dignity in the dying process. Thus, while passive euthanasia is a protected right through judicial guidelines, active euthanasia remains prohibited.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement-I is correct. In the landmark Common Cause vs. Union of India (2018) case, a five-judge Constitution Bench held that the Right to Life with dignity under Article 21 includes the right to a dignified dying process. This expanded the scope of individual autonomy over one’s body in terminal conditions.
- Statement-II is incorrect because the Supreme Court legalized Passive Euthanasia, not active euthanasia. Active euthanasia (administering lethal substances) remains illegal and is treated as culpable homicide in India. The court distinguished between “ending life” and “withdrawing life support” to allow nature to take its course.
- The 2018 judgment specifically focused on Living Wills (Advance Medical Directives), allowing individuals to decide in advance against life-sustaining treatment if they reach an incurable stage. Earlier, the Gian Kaur Case (1996) had clarified that Article 21 does not include a “right to die” in the sense of unnatural termination of life, but the 2018 ruling refined this to uphold dignity in the dying process. Thus, while passive euthanasia is a protected right through judicial guidelines, active euthanasia remains prohibited.
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