DAY – 14 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : POLITY

Answer:  (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Constitution does not fix the strength of the Election Commission. Article 324(2) states that the Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. While it currently consists of three members, this is by Presidential order, not a rigid Constitutional fixture.
• Statement 2 is Correct: According to the provisions of Article 324(4), the President may appoint Regional Commissioners, but this power is explicitly subject to consultation with the Election Commission.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Article 324(3) specifies that when any other Election Commissioner is appointed, the Chief Election Commissioner shall act as the Chairman of the Election Commission.

Answer:  (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect

While the Governor appoints the Chairman and members of the SPSC, the power of removal is exclusively reserved for the President. This is a significant safeguard designed to ensure the independence of the State Commission from local political pressure.

• Appointed by: Governor
• Removed by: President

Statement 2: Incorrect

The grounds for removal for both UPSC and SPSC members are identical. The Constitution does not differentiate between them in this regard. According to Article 317, the President removes an SPSC member on the same grounds and in the same manner as a UPSC member.

Statement 3: Incorrect

A Supreme Court inquiry is not mandatory for all grounds.

• No Inquiry Needed: If the member is an insolvent, engages in outside paid employment, or is unfit due to infirmity of mind/body. The President can act directly.
• Inquiry Mandatory: Only in the case of Misbehaviour. In this specific instance, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court, and the Court’s advice is binding.

Answer:   (a)

Explanation:

Answer:  (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect

The Constitution did not originally envisage a multi-member body.

• Original Provision (Art. 338): It provided for the appointment of a Special Officer (singular) for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. This officer was designated as the Commissioner for SCs and STs.
• Transition: It was only via the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act (1990) that this single-member office was replaced by a high-level multi-member National Commission.

Statement 2: Correct

The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 is the specific legislation that bifurcated the combined National Commission into two separate constitutional entities:

1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) under Article 338.
2. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) under Article 338-A.

Answer:   (c)

Explanation:

(a) Appointment: As per Article 148, the CAG is appointed by the President. The use of a warrant under his hand and seal signifies the high constitutional status and independence of the office, similar to Supreme Court Judges.

(b) Tenure: The term of office is fixed at 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. This is a statutory provision that ensures the auditor can function without immediate political pressure.

(c) Removal (incorrect): The CAG is removed in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court (requiring a special majority in both Houses of Parliament). A UPSC Chairman, however, is removed by the President following an inquiry by the Supreme Court under Article 317. The two processes are legally distinct.

(d) Resignation: Since the President is the appointing authority, any formal resignation must be addressed to the President of India.

Answer:  (d)

Explanation:

The recommending committee consists of six members, but point 4 includes two persons (LoP Lok Sabha + LoP Rajya Sabha).

• Prime Minister: Acts as the Chairman of the selection committee.
• Speaker of the Lok Sabha: A mandatory member representing the Lower House.
• Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha:
  • The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Vice-President) is not a member; the Deputy Chairman is included to maintain the committee’s statutory nature.
• Leaders of the Opposition (Both Houses): This includes the LoP of the Lok Sabha and the LoP of the Rajya Sabha. Their inclusion ensures a bipartisan and transparent selection process.
• Union Home Minister: Represents the executive branch responsible for internal security and human rights administration.

Answer:  (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Under the RTI framework, the Commission has a mandatory duty to receive and inquire into complaints where a citizen is denied information, whether through explicit refusal or a deemed refusal (failure to respond within 30 days).
• Statement 2 is Correct: To ensure effective adjudication, the CIC is vested with the powers of a Civil Court. This specifically includes the power to summon witnesses, receive evidence on affidavit, and requisition public records from any court or office.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: While a public authority may refuse to give certain information to a citizen under security exemptions (Section 8), it cannot withhold any record from the Commission during an inquiry. The law states that no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds.

Answer:  (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: The CBI is not a statutory body in its own right; it derives its legal powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. According to Section 4 of this Act, the administration of the establishment is vested in the Director, who exercises the powers of an Inspector-General of Police (IGP) for the DSPE.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) does not have blanket power over the CBI. Its superintendence is strictly limited to investigations conducted under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. For all other matters—such as conventional crimes (murder, kidnapping), economic offenses, and general administration—the superintendence vests with the Central Government (Ministry of Personnel).

Answer:  (a)

Explanation:

• Prime Minister of India (INCLUDED): The Lokpal has jurisdiction over the PM, though with procedural safeguards for allegations involving international relations, external/internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space.
• Members of Parliament (INCLUDED): MPs are categorized as public servants under the Act and are subject to its inquiry powers.
• Armed Forces of India (NOT INCLUDED): This is a critical exclusion. The Lokpal Act does not cover the Army, Navy, and Air Force; they are governed by their respective Service Acts (e.g., the Army Act, 1950).
• Officials of Union Government (INCLUDED): The Act explicitly lists all categories of central bureaucracy, including Groups A, B, C, and D.
• Societies or Trusts (NOT INCLUDED): The Act covers entities receiving foreign contributions above ₹10 lakh. A society receiving ₹5 lakh are NOT covered as threshold is ₹10 lakh.

Answer:  (b)

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is Correct: Article 348 mandates that until Parliament provides otherwise by law, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court, as well as the authoritative texts of all Bills, Acts, and Ordinances, shall be in the English language.
• Pair 2 is Incorrect:

• • Article 350A provides for Facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at the primary stage of education for children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
  • Article 350B provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities by the President.

• Pair 3 is Correct: Article 351 contains a Special Directive for the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.

Answer: (a)

Solution:
Let Cost Price = 100
Marked Price = 150

After 20% discount → 150 × 0.8 = 120
After 10% discount → 120 × 0.9 = 108

Selling Price = 108
Profit = 108 − 100 = 8

Profit % = 8%

Answer: (a)

Solution:
Let original price = 1, quantity = 1
Expenditure = 1

New price = 1.25
New expenditure = 0.9

New quantity = 0.9 / 1.25 = 0.72

Reduction = 1 − 0.72 = 0.28 = 28%

Answer: (c)

Solution:
A = 12000 × 12 = 144000

B =
First 6 months → 20000 × 6 = 120000
Next 6 months → 10000 × 6 = 60000

Total B = 180000

Ratio = 144000 : 180000 = 4 : 5

Answer: (c)

Solution:
Multiply capital × time:

A = 2 × 10 = 20
B = 3 × 12 = 36
C = 5 × 6 = 30

Ratio = 20 : 36 : 30 = 10 : 18 : 15

Total parts = 43

C’s share = (15/43) × 4300 = 1500

Answer: (c)

Solution:

The passage acknowledges the importance of expert knowledge in addressing complex policy challenges, indicating that expertise is necessary for effective governance. However, it simultaneously cautions against excessive dependence on experts, highlighting risks such as reduced transparency, limited public participation, and weakened democratic legitimacy. The argument is balanced rather than extreme, as it does not reject expertise nor claim inherent incompatibility between democracy and expert involvement. Options (a) and (b) are too absolute, while (d) overgeneralizes the benefits of public participation. Therefore, the most logical inference is that overdependence on experts can undermine democratic processes by marginalizing citizen engagement and accountability.