UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 March 2026

Solution: C

The RISA: Timeless Tribal brand, launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and implemented by TRIFED, aims to position indigenous crafts in the premium global market. It involves specific regional specialties that have high cultural and commercial value.

• Eri Silk (Assam): Often called the “fabric of peace” because the silk is processed without killing the silkworm, it is a staple of Assamese tribal culture.
• Pashmina (Ladakh): Known for its extreme fineness and warmth, Pashmina is harvested from the Changthangi goat in the high altitudes of Ladakh.
• Dokhra Art (Chhattisgarh): This is a non-ferrous metal casting using the lost-wax casting technique, which has been used in India for over 4,000 years. It is synonymous with the tribal heartlands of Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
• Toda Embroidery (Tamil Nadu): Practiced by the Toda pastoral tribe in the Nilgiris, this unique embroidery involves distinct red and black geometric patterns on a white background.

The RISA initiative provides design intervention and modern packaging to these traditional crafts, ensuring that the Vocal for Local movement translates into sustainable livelihoods for tribal women and artisans across these diverse geographical clusters.

Solution: A

• The Small Hydro Power (SHP) Development Scheme is a significant push towards decentralized renewable energy.
• Statement 1 is correct as it targets projects within the 1–25 MW These are distinct from large hydro projects and are often situated in remote or hilly terrains where grid connectivity is challenging.
• Statement 2 is correct. The scheme utilizes a differential funding model. NE and Border States receive a higher subsidy of ₹3.6 crore/MW (max ₹30 crore), recognizing the higher construction costs and strategic importance of these regions. In contrast, other states receive ₹2.4 crore/MW (max ₹20 crore).
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme has a very strict Atmanirbhar Bharat requirement: to qualify for support, projects must leverage 100% of plant and machinery from indigenous sources, not just 50%. This is designed to build a robust domestic supply chain for hydro turbines and components. A key advantage of SHP projects mentioned in the scheme is that they avoid the environmental and social pitfalls of large dams, such as large-scale land acquisition or massive deforestation, while reducing transmission losses by generating power closer to the point of consumption.

Solution: D

• The Indian Ocean Region is geographically and strategically unique. Statement (a) is correct; the Monsoon system creates a unique reversal of surface currents twice a year, which is not seen in the Atlantic or Pacific. This affects navigation and climate across the littoral states.
• Statement (b) is correct regarding biodiversity. The IOR is home to roughly 25% of global coral reefs, making it a critical zone for marine ecology and local fishing economies, which provide a significant portion of the global catch.
• Statement (c) is correct. There are 36 littoral nations bordering the ocean, and its maritime routes are the lifeblood for 14 landlocked countries that depend on these ports for trade.

Statement (d) is incorrect. The Indian Ocean is the third-largest ocean in the world, not the largest (the Pacific is the largest). It does connect to the Atlantic and Pacific via key choke points (like the Malacca Strait and the Cape of Good Hope) and borders the Southern Ocean to the south.

Solution: D

• The Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA) is not just about building sheds; it is about creating a functional industrial ecosystem. Its alignment with PM GatiShakti is a core feature. PM GatiShakti is a National Master Plan for multimodal connectivity that breaks down silos between different infrastructure departments (railways, shipping, roads, etc.).
• By aligning BHAVYA with GatiShakti, the government ensures that when a 1000-acre industrial park is planned, it is simultaneously integrated with the nearest highway, railway siding, or port. This logistics integration is crucial for reducing the “cost of doing business” in India, which has historically been high due to fragmented infrastructure. Statement (d) correctly identifies this synergy.
• The goal is to make India a global manufacturing hub by providing “plug-and-play” facilities that are ready for immediate export-oriented production.

Solution: A

• The distinction between Small Hydro Power (1-25 MW) and Large Hydro is central to India’s renewable energy strategy.
• Statement-I is a widely accepted environmental premise: SHPs are “run-of-the-river” or small-head projects that have a much smaller ecological footprint.
• Statement-II provides the specific reasons why they are more sustainable. Large hydro projects often involve building massive dams that create huge reservoirs. These reservoirs submerge thousands of hectares of forest land (deforestation) and force the relocation of entire villages (displacement). In contrast, SHPs use the natural flow of water or smaller diversions, requiring minimal land.
• Furthermore, SHPs reduce the need for long-distance transmission lines, further lowering the environmental impact of infrastructure expansion in sensitive zones like the Himalayas or the Western Ghats.

Solution: A

• Statement I is a factual description of the Indian Ocean’s unique physical oceanography. Unlike the Atlantic or Pacific, where currents are relatively stable in their direction, the North Indian Ocean’s currents reverse direction twice a year.
• Statement II explains the mechanism: the Monsoon winds. During the summer, the Southwest Monsoon pushes water one way; during winter, the Northeast Monsoon reverses it. This is the direct cause of the asymmetry and reversal mentioned in Statement I.
• Statement III explains the biological consequence. This seasonal reversal leads to upwelling (bringing cold, nutrient-rich water to the surface) in different regions at different times. This nutrient cycling supports the vast plankton growth that sustains the region’s marine biodiversity and 25% of the world’s coral reefs.
• Both Statement II (the physical cause) and Statement III (the ecological impact) are correct, and both provide a comprehensive explanation for why this “unique reversal” (Statement I) is scientifically and strategically significant for the region’s littoral states and its global fishing catch.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Great Indian Bustard is Critically Endangered and is a flagship species of the semi-arid grasslands and scrublands of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Western Tragopan is listed as Vulnerable and is found in the temperate and subalpine forests of the Western Himalayas, specifically in areas with dense undergrowth.
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: While the Indian Grey Wolf exists, its IUCN status varies by subspecies but generally, the Indian population is under threat; more importantly, its primary habitat is grasslands, scrublands, and agro-ecosystems, not the Himalayan Tundra.

The Western Tragopan, for instance, is restricted to elevations between 2,400–3,600 meters, whereas the GIB avoids irrigated or heavily forested areas, preferring open landscapes.

Solution: B

• The Coconut Promotion Scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2026–27 as a Central Sector initiative, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. In Central Sector schemes, the entire expenditure is borne by the Union Government, whereas Centrally Sponsored Schemes involve cost-sharing between the Centre and States. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme is part of a broader ₹350 crore allocation for high-value crops like coconut, cashew, and cocoa.
• Statement 2 is correct as a primary feature of the scheme is Replantation and Rejuvenation, focusing on removing old, unproductive trees and introducing high-yielding, disease-resistant varieties. This is crucial for India, which, despite being the largest producer, faces challenges from aging plantations. Statement 3 is also correct; the scheme emphasizes Value Addition, encouraging the processing, branding, and export of products to improve farmers’ income and global competitiveness.
• India holds a 37% share in global coconut production, making it the world leader. The scheme, currently under formulation, intends to utilize this dominant position by improving agronomic practices, irrigation, and nutrient management. By strengthening the livelihoods of approximately 30 million people dependent on this sector, the government seeks to bridge the gap between production volume and farmer profitability. Productivity enhancement remains the cornerstone of this strategic intervention.

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. According to Article 114 of the Constitution, no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) except under appropriation made by law. This ensures legislative control over the executive, preventing any unauthorized expenditure of public funds. Even after the Budget is presented and the Demands for Grants are voted upon, the government lacks legal authority to spend until the Appropriation Bill is enacted into an Act.
• Statement-II is also correct. The Appropriation Bill is classified as a Money Bill under Article 110. This classification grants the Lok Sabha predominant power, while the Rajya Sabha has limited powers—it can only make recommendations and must return the bill within 14 days.
• However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is a requirement mandated specifically by Article 114 (Appropriation Bills), which establishes the necessity of the law for withdrawal. The fact that it is a Money Bill (Article 110) relates to the procedure of its passage and the relative powers of the two Houses, rather than the fundamental constitutional requirement that money cannot be withdrawn without a specific law. Thus, while both are true, the procedural classification is not the reason for the withdrawal restriction itself. Executive accountability to the legislature is the core principle behind Article 114.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Honeybees are generally not aggressive on their own; they are defensive creatures. They only attack when they perceive a direct threat or external disturbance to their hive. They act like soldiers protecting their colony rather than predators seeking targets.
• Statement 2 is correct. For honeybees, stinging is a suicidal act. When a honeybee stings a human, its barbed stinger becomes lodged in the skin. As the bee tries to fly away, the stinger is torn from its body, along with parts of its digestive tract, muscles, and nerves, leading to the bee’s death. This highlights the “last resort” nature of their defense mechanism.
• Statement 3 is correct. Common triggers for aggression include loud noises, bright colors, drones, and strong odors (like perfumes or incense). These stimuli are perceived as threats by the colony, especially during summer when hives are at their maximum strength. Once a single bee stings or is swatted, it releases alarm pheromones—chemical signals that attract and incite more bees to attack the same target. This leads to a mass mobilization where bees can pursue a target at speeds of up to 35 km per hour.