DAY – 13 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : POLITY

Answer: (c)

Explanation

Article 171 of the Constitution of India outlines the composition of the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad). Unlike the Legislative Assembly, which is based on direct universal adult suffrage, the Council is a body of mixed representation, consisting of both elected and nominated members.

The total number of members in the Council cannot exceed one-third of the total members in the Legislative Assembly, but must be at least 40.

As per Article 171(3), the breakdown of membership is as follows:

• One-third (1/3): Elected by members of local bodies such as municipalities, district boards, and other local authorities.
• One-third (1/3): Elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) of the State from among persons who are not members of the Assembly.
• One-twelfth (1/12): Elected by the graduates of at least three years’ standing residing in the state.
• One-twelfth (1/12): Elected by teachers of at least three years’ standing in educational institutions within the state, not lower in standard than a secondary school.
• One-sixth (1/6): Nominated by the Governor from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.

Value Addition

• Indirect Election: All elected members (except those nominated by the Governor) are chosen through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
• Permanent Body: Like the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative Council is a permanent house and not subject to dissolution. One-third of its members retire every two years.
• Creation and Abolition: Under Article 169, the Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council if the Legislative Assembly of that State passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The powers of the Governor regarding bills are governed by Article 200 and Article 201 of the Constitution. These provisions define the federal balance between the State and the Union, especially when a bill is referred to the President.

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 200, the Governor has a mandatory obligation to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President if, in the Governor’s opinion, the bill, if it became law, would “so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill.”
• Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 201, when a bill is reserved for the President, the President may either give assent, withhold assent, or direct the Governor to return the bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration (if it is not a Money Bill). Once returned, the State Legislature must reconsider the bill within a period of six months.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: This is a crucial difference between the Governor’s power and the President’s power.
  • If the Governor returns a bill and the State Legislature passes it again, the Governor must give assent.
  • However, if the President returns a bill for reconsideration and the State Legislature passes it again (with or without amendments), the President is NOT bound to give assent. The Constitution does not impose a second-time mandatory assent on the President regarding state bills.

Answer: (d)

Explanation

The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) is a landmark legislation in India that aims to empower tribal communities by extending the 73rd Constitutional Amendment (Panchayati Raj) to the Fifth Schedule areas with specific modifications that prioritize traditional tribal governance.

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 4(d) of the Act, every Gram Sabha is explicitly empowered and declared competent to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community resources, and the customary mode of dispute resolution.
• Statement 2 is correct: Section 4(i) of the Act mandates that the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level must be consulted before the government makes any acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for development projects. It also requires consultation before resettling or rehabilitating persons affected by such projects in these areas.
• Statement 3 is correct: The 73rd Amendment (which added Part IX regarding Panchayats to the Constitution) did not automatically apply to the Fifth Schedule areas. PESA was enacted specifically to extend these provisions to those areas (currently 10 states: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana) with modifications and exceptions that suit tribal self-rule.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

In India, urban governance is not limited to just Municipal Corporations and Municipalities. There are eight types of urban local bodies created to suit specific geographic, functional, or industrial requirements.

• 1. Special Purpose Agency (Correct): These are established by a specific Act of the State Legislature (e.g., Delhi Development Authority, Bangalore Development Authority). Unlike a general municipality that looks after everything from health to education, these have a specific functional jurisdiction—such as town planning, water supply, or housing. They are often called “single-purpose” or “uni-functional” bodies.
• 2. Town Area Committee (Incorrect): This is a semi-municipal authority set up for the administration of a small town. It is created by a separate Act of a State Legislature, but its functions are general (like drainage, roads, and street lighting), similar to a municipality, rather than being limited to a single specific function.
• 3. Township (Incorrect): A township is usually established by a large public sector enterprise (like BHEL or SAIL) to provide civic amenities to its staff and workers living in a housing colony near the plant. It does not have an elected constitution; the enterprise appoints a Town Administrator. It is not created by a specific Act of the Legislature for functional governance, but rather as an extension of corporate infrastructure.
• 4. Port Trust (Correct): Port Trusts (like the Mumbai Port Trust or Kolkata Port Trust) are established by an Act of Parliament. They have two primary roles: to manage the port and to provide civic amenities (like water and light) in the port area. Their jurisdiction is strictly confined to the port and its specific operational functional area.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The eligibility for local body elections (Panchayats and Municipalities) is governed by Articles 243-F and 243-V of the Constitution of India, supplemented by specific State laws.

• Amar (Eligible): According to the Constitution, the minimum age to contest for the State Legislature (MLA) is 25 years. However, for local body elections, a person is eligible to contest if they have attained the age of 21 years. Since Amar is 22, he meets the age requirement to be a Sarpanch.
• Akbar (Legally Permissible): There is no constitutional bar preventing a sitting Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) from contesting a municipal election or being a member of a Municipality. In fact, many State municipal acts provide for the ex-officio membership of MLAs and MPs in the Municipalities or District Panchayats within their constituencies to ensure coordination between different levels of government.
• Anthony (Generally Ineligible): Under Articles 243-F and 243-V, a person is disqualified for being a member of a Panchayat or Municipality if they are disqualified by or under any law for the time being in force for the purposes of elections to the Legislature of the State. Since Anthony is disqualified under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) for the State Legislature, this disqualification generally extends to his eligibility for local body positions as well, unless a specific state law provides an exception..

Answer: (b)

Explanation

The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (often remembered by the acronym AMTM). This is done through the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), which have legislative, judicial, and executive powers over specific subjects.

• 1. Bodoland Territorial Council (Assam): This is located in Assam. It was created under the modified Sixth Schedule following the Bodo Accord. It covers four districts: Kokrajhar, Baksa, Chirang, and Udalguri.
• 2. Chakma Autonomous District Council (Mizoram): This is located in the southern part of Mizoram. it was established in 1972 specifically for the Chakma people, who are a predominantly Buddhist ethnic group.
• 3. Lai Autonomous District Council (Mizoram): This is also located in Mizoram (headquartered at Lawngtlai). It serves the Lai people and is one of the three ADCs in the state. (The third one, not mentioned here, is the Mara Autonomous District Council).
• 4. Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council (Assam): This is located in Assam. It is one of the oldest autonomous councils in the country, carved out to provide self-governance to the Karbi tribe in the central part of the state.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was a significant addition to the Indian Constitution to protect the interests of those whose mother tongue is different from the majority language of the state in which they reside.

• Statement 1 is correct: The original Constitution did not contain a provision for this office. Based on the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission (1953–55), the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. This article provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities to be appointed by the President.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Commissioner (the designation of the Special Officer) does prepare reports, the reporting line described is slightly off. The Commissioner submits annual reports (and other reports as needed) to the President of India, not directly to the Union Home Minister. It is the President who causes all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the governments of the states concerned.

Value Addition

• The Special Officer is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. The headquarters of the Commissioner is located at Prayagraj (Allahabad), Uttar Pradesh.
• Regional Offices: To assist in the work, there are three regional offices located at Belagavi (Karnataka), Chennai (Tamil Nadu), and Kolkata (West Bengal).
• Objective: The primary objective is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution and report on their implementation to ensure equal opportunity for inclusive development.
• Administrative Ministry: At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Minority Affairs (it was previously under the Ministry of Home Affairs).

Answer: (a)

Explanation

This landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India clarified the legal nature of reservation policies under Articles 16(4) and 16(4-A) of the Constitution. It addressed the long-standing debate over whether the State can be forced by a court to provide reservations.

The Supreme Court, in this case, set out several definitive legal principles:

• No Fundamental Right to Reservation: The court held that there is no fundamental right which inherent in an individual to claim reservation in promotions.
• Enabling Provision: The court emphasized that Article 16(4) and Article 16(4-A) are “enabling provisions.” This means they give the State the power to provide reservations if it chooses to do so, but they do not impose a duty on the State to provide them.
• No Mandamus: Because it is an enabling power and not a fundamental right, the courts cannot issue a Writ of Mandamus to direct a state government to provide reservations.
• The court further noted that while the State must collect quantifiable data showing the inadequacy of representation of SCs and STs if it decides to provide reservation, it is not required to justify its decision if it chooses not to provide reservation.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are a sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes in India. They are considered the most marginalized because they have not benefited significantly from general tribal development programs.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Dhebar Commission (1960-61) was the first to recognize a disparity in development among tribal groups. It pointed out that some groups were significantly more backward than others and suggested a separate category to ensure they received targeted assistance.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of Home Affairs uses specific criteria to identify PVTGs:
  1. Pre-agricultural level of technology (e.g., hunting and gathering).
  2. Low level of literacy.
  3. Economic backwardness.
  4. A declining or stagnant population.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: PVTGs are not confined to the northeastern region. In fact, they are spread across 18 States and one Union Territory (Andaman & Nicobar Islands). Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs (13 out of 75), followed by Andhra Pradesh. Famous groups include the Jarawas (Andaman), Sahariyas (Rajasthan/MP), and Baigas (Central India).
• Statement 4 is correct: In 1975 (during the Fifth Five-Year Plan), the Government of India initiated the identification of the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category, initially calling them “Primitive Tribal Groups” (PTGs). The category was renamed PVTGs in 2006.

Answer: (a)

Explanation

The election of the Vice President of India is conducted under the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, and follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule) does not apply to the election of the Vice President. The Supreme Court in Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India and the Election Commission have clarified that Members of Parliament are free to vote according to their conscience. Political parties cannot issue a whip, and voting is conducted through a secret ballot.

Statement 2 is correct: In the election of the Vice President, the electoral college consists only of Members of Parliament (both elected and nominated). Each MP has an equal vote value of one. Unlike the Presidential election, there is no weighted voting system.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The required quota for election is not based on a simple majority of the total membership of Parliament. It is determined based on the valid votes polled using the formula:

This ensures that the winning candidate secures more than 50% of the valid votes cast.

Value Addition

• Electoral College:
  • President: Elected MPs + Elected MLAs of States + Delhi & Puducherry (Nominated members excluded)
  • Vice President: All MPs (Elected + Nominated), no role of State MLAs
• Supervision: Election conducted by the Election Commission of India
• Disputes: Decided by the Supreme Court; its decision is final
• Term & Eligibility:
  • Tenure: 5 years
  • Must be eligible for election to the Rajya Sabha (unlike the President, who must be eligible for the Lok Sabha)

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Let original price = ₹x

Original quantity = 1200/x
New price = 1.2x → New quantity = 1200/(1.2x) = 1000/x

Difference:
(1200/x − 1000/x) = 5
200/x = 5 → x = 40

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Let total voters = x

Polled = 0.9x
Valid = 0.9 × 0.9x = 0.81x

Majority = (54% − 46%) = 8% of valid votes

0.08 × 0.81x = 1620
0.0648x = 1620 → x = 25,000

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Profit in partnership is distributed based on Capital × Time

Step 1: Calculate capital-time for each partner

• A invested ₹20,000 for 12 months
  → 20,000 × 12 = 240,000
• B invested ₹25,000 for 4 months
  → 25,000 × 4 = 100,000
• C invested ₹15,000 for remaining 8 months
  → 15,000 × 8 = 120,000

Step 2: Find ratio

A : B : C
= 240,000 : 100,000 : 120,000
= 12 : 5 : 6

Step 3: Total parts

Total = 12 + 5 + 6 = 23 parts

Step 4: Value of one part

Value of 1 part = 4600 ÷ 23 = ₹200

Step 5: C’s share

C’s share = 6 × 200 = ₹1,200

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

2X = 3Y → X = 3/2 Y
Y = 4Z

So:
X = 6Z, Y = 4Z

Ratio:
X : Y : Z = 6 : 4 : 1

Total parts = 11

Value of 1 part = 13,200 / 11 = 1,200

Difference (X − Z) = 5 parts
= 5 × 1,200 = ₹6,000

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The passage argues that the digital divide is not limited to lack of access to technology but is shaped by deeper structural factors such as education, language, and economic inequality. It explicitly rejects the idea that merely providing hardware can solve the issue, emphasizing that without digital literacy and locally relevant content, technology remains underutilized.

Therefore, options suggesting technology as the cause of inequality, or hardware as a complete solution, are incorrect. It also does not imply that underprivileged communities are incapable of using technology. Hence, the most logical inference is that digital solutions must be holistic and context-specific.