The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Sardar Patel’s contributions to the Indian administration and civil services:
- He was instrumental in the creation of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).
- Patel envisioned the IAS as a robust administrative framework to maintain governance stability in India.
- He viewed the civil services as temporary structures for post-independence governance.
- Patel’s model of civil services was inspired by the British administrative structure but aimed to serve India’s needs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a decisive role in establishing the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS) as successors to the colonial civil services, ensuring administrative continuity after independence.
- Statement 2 is correct. Patel strongly advocated for a strong, independent, and merit-based civil service, famously calling it the “steel frame” of India, essential for maintaining unity, stability, and efficient governance in a newly independent nation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. He did not consider civil services as temporary. Instead, he emphasized their permanent and indispensable role in nation-building and governance.
- Statement 4 is correct. While inspired by the British Indian Civil Service (ICS) structure, Patel adapted it to suit India’s democratic and developmental needs, ensuring accountability to elected representatives while preserving administrative neutrality.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a decisive role in establishing the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS) as successors to the colonial civil services, ensuring administrative continuity after independence.
- Statement 2 is correct. Patel strongly advocated for a strong, independent, and merit-based civil service, famously calling it the “steel frame” of India, essential for maintaining unity, stability, and efficient governance in a newly independent nation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. He did not consider civil services as temporary. Instead, he emphasized their permanent and indispensable role in nation-building and governance.
- Statement 4 is correct. While inspired by the British Indian Civil Service (ICS) structure, Patel adapted it to suit India’s democratic and developmental needs, ensuring accountability to elected representatives while preserving administrative neutrality.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Wular Lake:
- Wular Lake was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is one of the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia.
- The lake is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and also receives glacial meltwater from the Pir Panjal range.
- The Wular Lake basin is designated as a Ramsar site due to its ecological importance and biodiversity.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Wular Lake was formed due to tectonic activity and is among the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia, making statement 1 correct.
- It is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and additional water from mountain streams, including glacial melt from nearby ranges such as Pir Panjal, making statement 2 also correct.
- Statement 3 is correct as Wular Lake is a Ramsar site recognized for its significant biodiversity and wetland ecology.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Wular Lake was formed due to tectonic activity and is among the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia, making statement 1 correct.
- It is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and additional water from mountain streams, including glacial melt from nearby ranges such as Pir Panjal, making statement 2 also correct.
- Statement 3 is correct as Wular Lake is a Ramsar site recognized for its significant biodiversity and wetland ecology.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Form 17C used in the Indian electoral process:
- Form 17C is legally required to be signed by both polling agents and the presiding officer at the close of polling.
- It contains information about tendered votes and discrepancies in voter turnout.
- Form 17C is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Form 17C Part I records key polling day data such as votes cast, EVM serial numbers, tendered votes, and any discrepancies It must be signed by the Presiding Officer and polling agents for validity, ensuring transparency and consensus on the recorded numbers.
- Statement 3 is incorrect — Form 17C is governed under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not 1950.
About Form 17C:
- What it is:
-
- Form 17C is a mandatory election document that records booth-wise voter turnout and election results.
- Its parts:
-
- Part 1: Account of Votes Recorded — includes booth-wise data on the number of electors, votes cast, Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) identification, tendered ballots, and discrepancies.
- Part 2: Result of Counting — provides candidate-wise vote counts obtained by pressing the result button on the EVM.
- Law governed under:
-
- Governed by the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- Procedures laid down:
-
- Part 1 is filled by the Presiding Officer after polling, signed by polling agents, and sealed in a ‘Strong Room.’
- Part 2 is filled by the Returning Officer on counting day, verified, signed by counting agents, and officially declared.
- Functions and powers of Form 17C:
-
- Ensures transparency and accountability of votes recorded and counted.
- Enables cross-verification of voter turnout and vote counts.
- Helps address discrepancies and strengthens trust in the electoral process.
- Legally binding for polling and counting officials, with signatures mandatory for validation.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Form 17C Part I records key polling day data such as votes cast, EVM serial numbers, tendered votes, and any discrepancies It must be signed by the Presiding Officer and polling agents for validity, ensuring transparency and consensus on the recorded numbers.
- Statement 3 is incorrect — Form 17C is governed under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not 1950.
About Form 17C:
- What it is:
-
- Form 17C is a mandatory election document that records booth-wise voter turnout and election results.
- Its parts:
-
- Part 1: Account of Votes Recorded — includes booth-wise data on the number of electors, votes cast, Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) identification, tendered ballots, and discrepancies.
- Part 2: Result of Counting — provides candidate-wise vote counts obtained by pressing the result button on the EVM.
- Law governed under:
-
- Governed by the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- Procedures laid down:
-
- Part 1 is filled by the Presiding Officer after polling, signed by polling agents, and sealed in a ‘Strong Room.’
- Part 2 is filled by the Returning Officer on counting day, verified, signed by counting agents, and officially declared.
- Functions and powers of Form 17C:
-
- Ensures transparency and accountability of votes recorded and counted.
- Enables cross-verification of voter turnout and vote counts.
- Helps address discrepancies and strengthens trust in the electoral process.
- Legally binding for polling and counting officials, with signatures mandatory for validation.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duties (ADD) in India:
- The authority to recommend anti-dumping duties lies with the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR).
- These duties are imposed when imports are priced below the normal value and cause material injury to domestic industry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Statement 1 is correct — the DGTR, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency that conducts investigations and recommends ADD to the Ministry of Finance.
Statement 2 is correct — ADD is imposed when an imported product is sold at a price lower than its normal value (typically the domestic market price of the exporting country) and such imports cause injury to domestic producers.
About Anti-Dumping Duties:
- What it is
-
- Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed on imports priced below their normal value in the exporting country.
- It aims to protect domestic industries from injury caused by unfairly priced imports.
- Authority to impose in India
-
- The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recommends anti-dumping duties.
- The Ministry of Finance notifies and levies these duties based on DGTR’s investigation and recommendation.
- When it is imposed:
-
- Imposed after evidence of material injury to domestic industry from cheap imports sold at below market price.
- Duties are typically levied for a period of up to five years and periodically reviewed.
- Does it violate WTO rules?
-
- No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994.
- The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Statement 1 is correct — the DGTR, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency that conducts investigations and recommends ADD to the Ministry of Finance.
Statement 2 is correct — ADD is imposed when an imported product is sold at a price lower than its normal value (typically the domestic market price of the exporting country) and such imports cause injury to domestic producers.
About Anti-Dumping Duties:
- What it is
-
- Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed on imports priced below their normal value in the exporting country.
- It aims to protect domestic industries from injury caused by unfairly priced imports.
- Authority to impose in India
-
- The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recommends anti-dumping duties.
- The Ministry of Finance notifies and levies these duties based on DGTR’s investigation and recommendation.
- When it is imposed:
-
- Imposed after evidence of material injury to domestic industry from cheap imports sold at below market price.
- Duties are typically levied for a period of up to five years and periodically reviewed.
- Does it violate WTO rules?
-
- No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994.
- The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Secret Sitting in Parliament:
- The Constitution of India explicitly provides for secret sittings of both Houses of Parliament.
- Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure permits secret sittings when recommended by the Leader of the House and approved by the Speaker.
- The proceedings of secret sittings are published in the official records only if the House resolves to do so.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect — The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide for secret sittings. Instead, it allows Parliament to make its own rules of procedure under Article 118, under which the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for both Houses have been framed.
- Statement 2 is correct — Under Rule 248 of the Lok Sabha Rules, the Leader of the House may request a secret sitting, and the Speaker may approve it.
- Statement 3 is also correct — the proceedings of a secret sitting are not automatically published; they are only published if the House later resolves to make them public.
About Secret Sitting of Lok Sabha:
- What it is
-
- A secret sitting is a closed-door parliamentary session where discussions are held confidentially, without public or media access.
- Constitutional Provision:
-
- The Constitution of India does not directly mention secret sittings, but it empowers Parliament to frame its own rules under Article 118.
- Chapter 25 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 248 mention about Secret Sitting.
- The Constitution of India does not directly mention secret sittings, but it empowers Parliament to frame its own rules under Article 118.
- History:
-
- Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting.
- In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Who can declare a secret sitting:
-
- The Leader of the House can request it.
- The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to approve and schedule the secret sitting.
- Secret sitting is allowed in Rajya Sabha as well.
- It is provided under Rule 266 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), where the Chairman can permit a secret sitting on a request made by the Leader of the House.
- Features of Secret Sitting:
-
- No visitors or outsiders are allowed in the chamber, lobby, or galleries.
- Proceedings are recorded and published only with the Speaker’s approval.
- Any unauthorized disclosure is considered a gross breach of privilege.
- Limits:
-
- Participants cannot keep notes or publish any part of the discussion.
- Revealing secret sitting proceedings is considered a gross breach of privilege of the House, leading to disciplinary action.
- Only with the Speaker’s consent and a passed motion can such information be officially disclosed.
- Participants cannot keep notes or publish any part of the discussion.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is incorrect — The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide for secret sittings. Instead, it allows Parliament to make its own rules of procedure under Article 118, under which the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for both Houses have been framed.
- Statement 2 is correct — Under Rule 248 of the Lok Sabha Rules, the Leader of the House may request a secret sitting, and the Speaker may approve it.
- Statement 3 is also correct — the proceedings of a secret sitting are not automatically published; they are only published if the House later resolves to make them public.
About Secret Sitting of Lok Sabha:
- What it is
-
- A secret sitting is a closed-door parliamentary session where discussions are held confidentially, without public or media access.
- Constitutional Provision:
-
- The Constitution of India does not directly mention secret sittings, but it empowers Parliament to frame its own rules under Article 118.
- Chapter 25 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 248 mention about Secret Sitting.
- The Constitution of India does not directly mention secret sittings, but it empowers Parliament to frame its own rules under Article 118.
- History:
-
- Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting.
- In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Who can declare a secret sitting:
-
- The Leader of the House can request it.
- The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to approve and schedule the secret sitting.
- Secret sitting is allowed in Rajya Sabha as well.
- It is provided under Rule 266 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), where the Chairman can permit a secret sitting on a request made by the Leader of the House.
- Features of Secret Sitting:
-
- No visitors or outsiders are allowed in the chamber, lobby, or galleries.
- Proceedings are recorded and published only with the Speaker’s approval.
- Any unauthorized disclosure is considered a gross breach of privilege.
- Limits:
-
- Participants cannot keep notes or publish any part of the discussion.
- Revealing secret sitting proceedings is considered a gross breach of privilege of the House, leading to disciplinary action.
- Only with the Speaker’s consent and a passed motion can such information be officially disclosed.
- Participants cannot keep notes or publish any part of the discussion.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following objectives of the UN80 Initiative:
- Strengthening strategic planning and cost-effectiveness.
- Enhancing collaboration among different UN bodies for better coordination.
- Establishing a separate financial institution to oversee UN funding.
- Encouraging timely financial contributions from member states.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Explanation:
- The UN80 Initiative is a recent reform-oriented effort within the United Nations framework, aimed at enhancing the efficiency, coordination, and financial sustainability of the global body in the run-up to its 80th anniversary.
- Statement 1 is correct — One of its core goals is to strengthen strategic planning and promote cost-effective deployment of resources, especially in humanitarian, development, and peacekeeping operations.
- Statement 2 is correct — The initiative stresses greater inter-agency collaboration among UN bodies, ensuring synergy and cohesion in global responses to crises, including climate change, pandemics, and conflict.
- Statement 3 is incorrect — The initiative does not propose the creation of a separate financial institution. Instead, it advocates for internal financial reforms within the current UN structure to ensure transparency, accountability, and efficiency.
- Statement 4 is correct — Timely financial contributions from member states are crucial to address funding delays that often hinder program implementation.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Explanation:
- The UN80 Initiative is a recent reform-oriented effort within the United Nations framework, aimed at enhancing the efficiency, coordination, and financial sustainability of the global body in the run-up to its 80th anniversary.
- Statement 1 is correct — One of its core goals is to strengthen strategic planning and promote cost-effective deployment of resources, especially in humanitarian, development, and peacekeeping operations.
- Statement 2 is correct — The initiative stresses greater inter-agency collaboration among UN bodies, ensuring synergy and cohesion in global responses to crises, including climate change, pandemics, and conflict.
- Statement 3 is incorrect — The initiative does not propose the creation of a separate financial institution. Instead, it advocates for internal financial reforms within the current UN structure to ensure transparency, accountability, and efficiency.
- Statement 4 is correct — Timely financial contributions from member states are crucial to address funding delays that often hinder program implementation.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (RPA 1950):
- It provides for the preparation of electoral rolls and the qualifications of voters.
- It deals with the conduct of elections and the removal of disqualified members from legislatures.
- It lays down provisions related to the allocation of seats in Parliament and State Legislatures.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct – The Representation of the People Act, 1950 primarily deals with the preparation of electoral rolls, voter qualifications, and seat allocation for Parliament and state legislatures.
- Statement 2 is incorrect – The conduct of elections, corrupt practices, and disqualification of members fall under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the 1950 Act.
- Statement 3 is correct – The RPA 1950 also provides for the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as delimitation of constituencies.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct – The Representation of the People Act, 1950 primarily deals with the preparation of electoral rolls, voter qualifications, and seat allocation for Parliament and state legislatures.
- Statement 2 is incorrect – The conduct of elections, corrupt practices, and disqualification of members fall under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the 1950 Act.
- Statement 3 is correct – The RPA 1950 also provides for the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as delimitation of constituencies.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the CAG’s audit powers:
- The CAG can audit only those financial transactions that involve tax revenues.
- The CAG conducts three types of audits: compliance audit, financial audit, and propriety audit.
- The CAG directly advises the Prime Minister on financial matters related to policy decisions.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect – The CAG audits all government expenditure, including non-tax revenues and debt transactions.
- Statement 2 is correct – The CAG conducts compliance audits, financial audits, and propriety audits.
- Statement 3 is incorrect – The CAG does not advise the PM on policy matters; it is only responsible for auditing financial records.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect – The CAG audits all government expenditure, including non-tax revenues and debt transactions.
- Statement 2 is correct – The CAG conducts compliance audits, financial audits, and propriety audits.
- Statement 3 is incorrect – The CAG does not advise the PM on policy matters; it is only responsible for auditing financial records.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Customs Act, 1962:
-
- It empowers the central government to prohibit imports for reasons including public health and conservation.
- The Act allows immediate confiscation of imported goods even if proper documentation is submitted.
- The Act provides a warehousing mechanism for imported goods before duty is paid.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct – The Act gives the central government the authority to prohibit or restrict imports or exports to protect national interests like public health, morality, wildlife conservation, and security.
- Statement 3 is also correct – A distinctive feature of the Act is the warehousing provision, which permits imported goods to be stored in licensed warehouses without immediate payment of duties, until cleared for home consumption or re-export.
- Statement 2 is incorrect – confiscation of goods generally arises from violations such as misdeclaration, undervaluation, or smuggling, not when documentation is properly furnished.
- What is the Customs Act of 1962?
-
- The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India.
- It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade.
- Implementing Agency: Administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under the Ministry of Finance.
- Key Provisions of the Act:
-
- Customs Duty: Imposes duties on imported and exported goods based on the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
- Prohibitions and Restrictions: Empowers the government to ban or restrict certain imports/exports for national security and public health.
- Clearance Procedures: Mandates proper documentation, duty payment, and adherence to customs protocols before clearance.
- Warehousing Provisions: Allows imported goods to be stored without immediate duty payment until released for consumption or export.
- Exemptions Allowed for Passengers (International Arrivals):
-
- General Duty-Free Allowance: ₹50,000 worth of goods for international passengers.
- Gold Allowance:
- Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000).
- Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000).
- NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption).
- Other Allowances:
- One laptop per adult passenger.
- Alcohol: 2 litres.
- Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent.
- Cash Carrying Limit:
-
- Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration.
- Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange.
- Fines and Punishment for Smuggling:
-
- Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity.
- Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct – The Act gives the central government the authority to prohibit or restrict imports or exports to protect national interests like public health, morality, wildlife conservation, and security.
- Statement 3 is also correct – A distinctive feature of the Act is the warehousing provision, which permits imported goods to be stored in licensed warehouses without immediate payment of duties, until cleared for home consumption or re-export.
- Statement 2 is incorrect – confiscation of goods generally arises from violations such as misdeclaration, undervaluation, or smuggling, not when documentation is properly furnished.
- What is the Customs Act of 1962?
-
- The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India.
- It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade.
- Implementing Agency: Administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under the Ministry of Finance.
- Key Provisions of the Act:
-
- Customs Duty: Imposes duties on imported and exported goods based on the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
- Prohibitions and Restrictions: Empowers the government to ban or restrict certain imports/exports for national security and public health.
- Clearance Procedures: Mandates proper documentation, duty payment, and adherence to customs protocols before clearance.
- Warehousing Provisions: Allows imported goods to be stored without immediate duty payment until released for consumption or export.
- Exemptions Allowed for Passengers (International Arrivals):
-
- General Duty-Free Allowance: ₹50,000 worth of goods for international passengers.
- Gold Allowance:
- Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000).
- Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000).
- NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption).
- Other Allowances:
- One laptop per adult passenger.
- Alcohol: 2 litres.
- Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent.
- Cash Carrying Limit:
-
- Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration.
- Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange.
- Fines and Punishment for Smuggling:
-
- Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity.
- Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods.
-
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhat is the primary aim of the Digital India Common Service Center (DICSC) project?
Correct
Solution: C
The main objective of the Digital India Common Service Center (DICSC) project is to bridge the digital divide in rural areas by providing digital and e-governance services at the grassroots level. By establishing model centers in gram panchayats, the initiative ensures that rural citizens have access to essential services like Aadhaar, banking, tele-law, telemedicine, and more, promoting digital inclusion and literacy. Unlike urban-focused projects or agriculture-specific initiatives, this project focuses on improving digital infrastructure and service accessibility for rural communities.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The main objective of the Digital India Common Service Center (DICSC) project is to bridge the digital divide in rural areas by providing digital and e-governance services at the grassroots level. By establishing model centers in gram panchayats, the initiative ensures that rural citizens have access to essential services like Aadhaar, banking, tele-law, telemedicine, and more, promoting digital inclusion and literacy. Unlike urban-focused projects or agriculture-specific initiatives, this project focuses on improving digital infrastructure and service accessibility for rural communities.
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