DAY – 12 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2026 : POLITY

Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Statement I – Correct:
Audit of Union accounts falls under the Union List. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) audits Union finances, which is a central subject (Entry 76).

Statement II – Correct:
Inter-State migration is covered under the Union List (Entry 81) as it involves movement across states, requiring uniform national regulation.

Statement III – Correct:
Elections to Parliament are conducted under the supervision of the Election Commission of India, and fall under the Union List (Entry 72).

Statement IV – Incorrect:
Public order is a State List subject (Entry 1), as law and order is primarily the responsibility of State governments.

Answer: (a)

Statement I – Correct:
The Electoral College for the Vice-President consists of members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members (unlike the President where nominated members are excluded).

Statement II – Incorrect:
Removal of the Vice-President requires a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha (effective majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. It is not a special majority.

Statement III – Incorrect:
The Constitution does not specify any ground for removal of the Vice-President. Unlike the President (who can be removed for violation of the Constitution), the Vice-President can be removed without any stated grounds.

Answer: (c)

Statement I – Correct:
The concept of individual responsibility of ministers is derived from Article 75(2) of the Constitution, which provides that ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
This implies that each minister is individually accountable for their actions and can be removed separately, unlike collective responsibility which relates to the entire Council.

Statement II – Correct:
Even when the Council of Ministers enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha, an individual minister can still be removed.
This is because:

• The removal of a minister is linked to individual responsibility, not majority support.
• The President formally exercises this power, but acts on the advice of the Prime Minister (Article 74).
• Therefore, if the Prime Minister advises removal, the President can dismiss that minister without affecting the survival of the entire Council.

Answer: (b)

Statement I – Incorrect:
The Kitchen Cabinet is not a formal body and has no constitutional or statutory basis.
It is not created under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. Rather, it is an informal advisory group around the Prime Minister.

Statement II – Correct:
The Kitchen Cabinet may include trusted aides, friends, and even non-political persons (such as family members or close advisors) of the Prime Minister.
Its composition is flexible and entirely at the discretion of the PM.

Statement III – Correct:
The functioning of a Kitchen Cabinet can undermine the role of the formal Council of Ministers, as key decisions are often taken in this smaller informal circle, shifting the real center of power away from the full Cabinet.

Answer: (b)

Statement I – Correct:
Judicial Review constitutes a fundamental limitation on the powers of Parliament. The judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court and High Courts, is empowered to examine the constitutional validity of laws and strike down those that are inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement II – Correct:
The federal distribution of legislative powers, as provided under the Seventh Schedule, imposes a structural limitation on Parliament. Parliament’s law-making authority is primarily confined to the Union List and Concurrent List, and it cannot ordinarily legislate on subjects in the State List except under constitutionally specified circumstances.

Statement III – Correct:
The Basic Structure Doctrine acts as a substantive limitation on Parliament’s amending power under Article 368. Parliament is not competent to alter or destroy the essential features of the Constitution, such as judicial review, federalism, and the rule of law.

Statement IV – Incorrect:
The Directive Principles of State Policy do not operate as enforceable limitations on Parliament’s powers. They are non-justiciable guidelines intended to direct the State in governance and policy formulation, but they do not impose legal constraints on legislative authority.

Answer: (a)

The Cabinet Committee system in India refers to a set of smaller, high-level committees of ministers constituted by the Cabinet to deal with specific areas of governance such as security, economic affairs, political matters, and appointments.

These committees are extra-constitutional and non-statutory bodies, formed for efficient and expeditious decision-making. They enable detailed examination of issues, reduce the burden on the full Cabinet, and allow specialisation and focused deliberation within the executive.

Thus, the system helps in streamlining governance and decentralising executive functions within the broader framework of the Council of Ministers.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Correct:
  The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is a permanent chamber and is not subject to dissolution, unlike the Legislative Assembly. Its continuity is maintained through a system of staggered retirement, wherein one-third of its members retire every two years. This ensures both institutional continuity and periodic infusion of new members.
• Statement 2 – Correct:
  The Constitution provides that Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council only after the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State passes a resolution to that effect. This resolution must be supported by a special majority, reflecting the importance of State consent in altering its legislative structure.
• Statement 3 – Correct:
  The law enacted by Parliament for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council is passed by a simple majority, following the procedure applicable to ordinary legislation. As per constitutional provisions, such a law is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368, even though it affects the structure of the State Legislature.
• Statement 4 – Correct:
  The constitutional framework allows flexibility in the structure of State legislatures. While some States have a bicameral legislature, others function with a unicameral system. This reflects the principle of asymmetrical federalism, enabling States to adopt institutional arrangements suited to their specific political and administrative needs.

Answer: (b)

Explanation

Pair I – Correct
Lame-duck Session is Session held after dissolution of the Lok Sabha but before the newly elected House meets.

Pair II – Incorrect
Calling Attention Motion requires prior notice and permission of the Speaker. The phrase “without prior notice” makes this incorrect.

Pair III – Incorrect
Shadow Cabinet is neither constitutional nor formally recognised in India. It is only an informal political arrangement.

Pair IV – Correct
Zero Hour follows Question Hour and allows members to raise issues without prior notice, making the description accurate.

Pair V – Correct
Point of Order is used to raise issues related to rules, procedure, or conduct of business in the House. The description is precise and correct.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Correct:
  Information on language is collected on a self-declaration basis during Census enumeration. The Registrar-General of India subsequently undertakes technical scrutiny, grouping and standardisation of responses to classify languages and dialects for official publication. This process involves consolidation of numerous reported mother tongues into recognised linguistic categories.
• Statement 2 – Correct:
  The Census Act, 1948 provides strict safeguards for confidentiality of individual data. Information collected during Census operations cannot be disclosed or used as evidence in any civil or criminal proceedings. This legal protection ensures respondent privacy and enhances the reliability and completeness of data furnished during enumeration.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. CARA is indeed a statutory body; however, it functions under the Ministry of Women and Child Development, not the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Both ministries deal with vulnerable sections, but adoption falls specifically within the domain of child welfare.

Statement II is correct. CARA serves as the central nodal authority responsible for the regulation, monitoring, and facilitation of both in-country and inter-country adoption processes in India. It ensures standardisation, transparency, and compliance with national and international norms.

Statement III is incorrect. CARA does not possess adjudicatory or judicial powers to grant adoption orders. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, the final legal approval of adoption is vested in competent courts. CARA’s role is limited to regulation, coordination, and oversight.

Answer: (b) 3:2

Solution:

Let incomes = 5x and 4x
Expenditures = 3y and 2y

Savings:

• A: 5x − 3y = 16000
• B: 4x − 2y = 16000

Multiply second by 3:
12x − 6y = 48000

Multiply first by 2:
10x − 6y = 32000

Subtract:
2x = 16000 → x = 8000

Substitute:
4x − 2y = 16000
32000 − 2y = 16000 → y = 8000

B’s income = 32000, expenditure = 16000

New income of B = 32000 × 1.25 = 40000
New savings of B = 40000 − 16000 = 24000

A’s savings = 16000

Ratio = 24000 : 16000 = 3 : 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Solution:

Statement 1: correct
x = 1.2y, y = 0.9z
⇒ x = 1.2 × 0.9z = 1.08z
⇒ x : z = 1.08 : 1 = 108 : 100 = 27 : 25

Statement 2: correct
Continued proportion ⇒ x/y = y/z
⇒ y² = xz

Answer: (b) 12.5 litres

Solution:

Let total capacity = V

Initial spirit = 0.2V

When 5 litres is removed, it contains 20% spirit:
Spirit removed = 1 litre

Remaining spirit = 0.2V − 1

After refilling with water:
Final spirit = 0.12V

Equation:
0.2V − 1 = 0.12V
⇒ 0.08V = 1
⇒ V = 12.5 litres

Answer: (a) 7:9

Solution:

Wine fraction:

• P = 5/7
• Q = 7/13
• Required = 8/13

Apply alligation:

Difference:
|5/7 − 8/13| = 9/91
|7/13 − 8/13| = 1/13

Ratio (P : Q):
1/13 : 9/91

Multiply by 91:
= 7 : 9

Answer: (c)

Solution:

The passage highlights that institutional autonomy enables independent decision-making and objective outcomes, which are essential for a healthy democracy. It suggests that gradual erosion of autonomy reduces the capacity of institutions to function impartially and provide unbiased assessments. While it does not completely reject oversight, it emphasizes the importance of maintaining a balance where institutions are not excessively controlled. Options (a) and (b) are extreme and unsupported, while (d) contradicts the core idea of autonomy. Therefore, the most logical inference is that institutional independence is crucial for ensuring objective functioning in a democratic system.